Provides Previous questions and Previous year question papers of Kerala PSC,UPSC, SSC,RRB,CTET,KTETand other Competitive Exams

13 November 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022- 11th November

 Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022- 11th November

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Q7. The HCF of two numbers is 15 and LCM of two number is 180. If one number is 45, then find the other number.

(a) 54
(b) 60
(c) 72
(d) 63
(e) 90

Q8. There are 15 persons lives in PG. If average monthly income of 8 persons is Rs 37000 and average monthly income of remaining persons is Rs 40000. Find the average monthly income of the group?
(a) Rs 37600
(b) Rs 38800
(c) Rs 38400
(d) Rs 36400
(e) Rs 37400

Q9. The ratio of spirit and water in two mixtures of 24 liters and 42 liters is 7 : 5 and 5 : 9 respectively. Both the mixtures are mixed together. Now the ratio of the spirit and water in the new mixture is
(a) 21 : 29
(b) 29 : 35
(c) 37 : 29
(d) 29 : 37
(e) 31 : 29

Q10. Volume of right circular cylinder is twice of the volume of sphere. Radius of the base of the cylinder is same as the radius of the sphere. If height of the cylinder is 8 cm, then find the total surface area of the cylinder.
(a) 64π cm²
(b) 66π cm²
(c) 78π cm²
(d) 72π cm²
(e) 63π cm²

Directions (11-15): What will come in the place of question Mark (?) in the following number series:

Q11. 432, 444, 460, 482, 508, ?
(a) 532
(b) 540
(c) 572
(d) 516
(e) 550

Q12. 112, 56, 224, 28, 448, ?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 12
(d) 24
(e) 7

Q13. 18, 8, 30, 20, 42, ?
(a) 38
(b) 36
(c) 28
(d) 32
(e) 30

Q14. 8, 6, 8, 14, 30, ?
(a) 75
(b) 76
(c) 77
(d) 78
(e) 79

Q15. 200, 270, 360, 472, 608, ?
(a) 690
(b) 710
(c) 770
(d) 840
(e) 774

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Quantitative Aptitude Quiz For IBPS SO Prelims 2022

Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 5


Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 5

Syllabus of the iOM consists of 3 sections i.e. Mathematics, Reasoning & Aptitude and Scholar’s Zone. Candidates can use the sample paper for analyzing and get to know about the difficulty level of the exam. Silverzone International Olympiad of Mathematics (iOM) Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 5 is given below:

Silverzone iOM Syllabus class 5

  • Numbers and Their Operations – Number Sense and Numeratio, Numbers in Operations, Factors and Multiples
  • Fractions and Decimals – Fractions and Decimals
  • Everyday Mathematics – Percentage, Ratio and Proportion/ Time and Distance
  • Geometry and Measurement – Measurement, Geometry
  • Data Handling – Data Handling
  • Algebra – Introduction to Algebra
  • Reasoning and Aptitude – Mental Aptitude
  • Scholar’s Zone – Scholar’s ZoneiOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 5
Silverzone iOM Syllabus

Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 12


Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 12

Syllabus of the iOM consists of 3 sections i.e. Mathematics, Reasoning & Aptitude and Scholar’s Zone. Candidates can use the sample paper for analyzing and get to know about the difficulty level of the exam. Silverzone International Olympiad of Mathematics (iOM) Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 12 is given below:

Silverzone iOM Syllabus class 12

  • Relations and Functions – Sets, Types of Relations, Types of Functions, Composition Of Functions, Invertible Functions, Binary Operations, Inverse Trigonometric functions and their properties
  • Algebra – Matrices and Determinants
  • Vectors & 3D – Vector algebra and Three dimensional geometry
  • Calculus – Applications of Derivatives, Integrals, Application of Integrals, Differential Equation
  • Linear programming & Mathematical Reasoning – Linear Programming Problem and its Mathematical Formulation and Mathematical Reasoning
  • Probability – Conditional Probability , Multiplication Theorem on Probability, Independent Events, Bayes’ Theorem, Random Variables and its Probability Distributions, Binomial Distribution
  • Reasoning and Aptitude – Reasoning and Aptitude
  • Scholar’s Zone – Scholar’s Zone

Silverzone iOM Syllabus-question-paper-class 12

Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 10


Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 10

Syllabus of the iOM consists of 3 sections i.e. Mathematics, Reasoning & Aptitude and Scholar’s Zone. Candidates can use the sample paper for analyzing and get to know about the difficulty level of the exam. Silverzone International Olympiad of Mathematics (iOM) Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 10 is given below:

Silverzone iOM Syllabus class 10

  • Number System & Sequence and Series – Decimal Expansion of Rational numbers, Arithmetic Progression, Geometric Progression, Harmonic Progression
  • Algebra & Co-ordinate Geometry – Polynomials, Pair of Linear equations in two variables, Quadratic equation, Coordinate geometry
  • Geometry – Similar figures, Similarity of Triangles, Areas Of Similar triangles, Circles, Tangent to a circle
  • Trigonometry – Trigonometry, Height and Distance
  • Statistics and Probability – Mean, Mode and Median of grouped Data, Mean deviation about mean, Mean deviation about Median, Standard Deviation and Variance, Probability of Events
  • Mensuration – Surface Area and Volume
  • Reasoning and Aptitude – Reasoning and Aptitude
  • Scholar’s Zone – Scholar’s Zone
Silverzone iOM Syllabus and Sample Question Paper for Class 10

6 August 2022

LIC HFL Assistant Manager Previous Year Question Paper|

 LIC HFL Assistant Manager Previous Year Question Paper|

LIC HFL Assistant Manager Previous Year Question Paper



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LIC HFL Assistant and Assistant manager Previous Year Question Paper: Life Insurance Corporation of India – Housing Finance Limited had started the online registration process for appointment of Assistant and Assistant Manager Vacancy.

4 August 2022

[Solved paper] ICDS Supervisor Exam Previous Question Paper |Kerala PSC Previous Question paper

[Solved paper] Assistant professor in Rachana Sharir Previous Question Paper| Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper

  [Solved paper] Assistant professor in Rachana Sharir Previous Question Paper| Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Assistant professor in Rachana Sharir 

Question Paper Code: 19/2022/OL

Category Code: 343/2021

Exam: Assistant professor in Rachana Sharir

Date of Test 31-03-2022

Department Ayurveda Medical Education

5 July 2022

[Solved paper] Dietician Grade II Previous Question Paper| Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper

 [Solved paper] Dietician Grade II Previous Question Paper| Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper


Question Paper Code: 20/2022/OL

Category Code: 394/2019

Exam: Dietician Grade II

Date of Test 05-04-2022

Department Insurance Medical Service

[Solved paper] Assistant Professor in Rasasasthra and Bhaishajyakalpana previous question paper| Kerala PSC Previous question Paper


[Solved paper] Assistant Professor in Rasasasthra and Bhaishajyakalpana previous question paper| Kerala PSC Previous question Paper

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Assistant Professor in Rasasasthra and Bhaishajyakalpana

Question Paper Code: 18/2022/OL

Category Code: 344/2021

Exam: Assistant Professor in Rasasasthra and Bhaishajyakalpana

Date of Test 31-03-2022

Department :  Ayurveda Medical Education

Alphacode A

Question1:-The inflammatory response of corticosteroids are better explained by their binding to nuclear transcription factors in the cell cytosol, which further translocate into the

nucleus and subsequently inhibits transcription of DNA to mRNA affecting concerned proteins. This statement better explains

        A:-Dose-response relationship



        D:-Therapeutic index

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Find out the correct statement/statements

   I.  Pharmaceutical equivalents have different active moieties with the same dose and similar

       therapeutic effects.

  II.  If two drug products produce same therapeutic effects when they are therapeutic


 III. Pharmaceutical alternatives always must have the same amount of the same active   


 IV.  Two drug products are bioequivalent if they are pharmaceutical alternatives or

       pharmaceutical equivalents with similar bioavailability under the same molar


        A:-I and II

        B:-II and IV

        C:-I, II and III

        D:-I, II, III and IV

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-Find out the correct statement/statements regarding Adverse Drug Reactions (ADR)

  I.  An exaggerated effect of a drug used in normal doses can be an ADR.

 II.  Allergic reactions that are not dose related but occurs to a pre-exposed drug (sensitized)

      can be an ADR.

III.  Unexpected effects of a drug that are often very serious occurring in a small number of

      people arising due to genetic or metabolic differences relating to that drug metabolism.

        A:-I and II are correct

        B:-I and III are correct

        C:-Only II is correct

        D:-I, II and III are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question4:-All are examples of plausible herb-drug interaction except

        A:-Allium sativum with warfarin showing increased bleeding

        B:-Increased plasma concentration of the drug rifampicin in pulmonary tuberculosis in the presence of Piper longum and Piper nigrum

        C:-Possible potentiation of oral and topical corticosteroids by Glycyrrhiza glabra

        D:-Increased absorption of orally administered drugs after Cassia senna intake

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-The incorrect statement among the following is

        A:-Cell lines most often offer consistent samples with reproducible results

        B:-Use of immortalized human cell lines always need ethical clearance

        C:-Cell lines can be useful tools for vaccine and antibody production

        D:-Primary cells are difficult to maintain than cell lines

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question6:-About 10 to 20 mg of this element is present in human body, of which 25 to 40% is in bones. Brain, kidney, liver ad pancreas also contain this element. It is available as a

dietary supplement, and is a cofactor to many enzymes crucial for reactive oxygen species scavenging. It also helps in immune response and aid in cholesterol, amino acid and

carbohydrate metabolism. Although toxicity from excess dietary intake has not been reported so far, high level occupational exposure and related toxicity can cause neurological

symptoms like tremors, hearing loss, muscle spasm etc. It may also cause mania, depression, delusions, head ache and lower extremity weakness. The element described here best

suits to





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question7:-All are true regarding heavy metal toxicity except

        A:-Anemia is the classic symptom of chronic metal exposure

        B:-Abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea and vomiting are the hall marks of acute metal ingestion

        C:-Dehydration can be a symptom of metal toxicity

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Find out the false statement regarding Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani (ASU) Pharmacovigilance programme.

        A:-There are currently 62 Peripheral Pharmacovigilance Centres in India for ASU

        B:-All India Institute of Ayurveda is the National Pharmacovigilance Centre

        C:-National Institutes of AYUSH are designated as the intermediary Pharmacovigilance Centres

        D:-One of the objectives of the programme is the detection of misleading advertisement related to ASU drugs

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question9:-"The science and art concerned with the preparation and standardization of drugs. Its scope includes the cultivation of plants that are used as drugs, the synthesis of

chemical compounds of medicinal value, and the analysis of medicinal agents". The definition given is that of




        D:-Medicinal Chemistry

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question10:-The following Ayurvedic text books are included in the first schedule of Drugs and Cosmetic act except

        A:-Hareetha Samhitha

        B:-Rasa Tarangini

        C:-Arya Bhishak

        D:-Arogya Kalpadrumam

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-Find out the false statement regarding the functions of pharmaceutical packaging materials.

        A:-The most fundamental function of packaging material is containment of the pharmaceutical product

        B:-A hermetically sealed container prevents the entry of microorganisms but allows passage of air through it

        C:-Packaging serves as an essential source of information regarding the packaged medicinal products

        D:-Packaging material may offer convenience of usage to the packaged medicinal products

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question12:-Find out the correct statement regarding Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia India (API).

        A:-API are unique book of standards of AYUSH drugs applicable pan India

        B:-Part II of API comprises of mono-monographs of medicinal plants

        C:-The development of API was based on the recommendations of R. N. Chopra Committee

        D:-The API Part I - Volume I was published in the year 1978

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-A manufacturer is producing an Ayurvedic drug in an insanitary environment with low quality raw materials. He is adding some coloring material to make the formulation

attractive without mentioning this in the packaging. The labeling does not contain any information on the batch of the medicine. The product comes with an insert claiming complete

cure for diabetes. The drug mentioned here comes under

        A:-Misbranded drugs

        B:-Adulterated drugs

        C:-The drug is both misbranded and adulterated

        D:-Spurious drug

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question14:-The drug that is not included in list of poisonous substances under the Ayurvedic (including Siddha) and Unani Systems of Medicine in the Drug and Cosmetic Act


        B:-Parasika Yavani



        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-The minimum area required for a quality control section as per GMP for Ayurvedic drug manufacturing

        A:-250 square feet

        B:-200 square feet

        C:-500 square feet

        D:-150 square feet

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question16:-A person marketing a herbal powder (the drug has no proven anticancer properties) claiming that the drug is very effective in curing cancer. The person is violating

        A:-Section 3 of the Drug and Magic Remedies Act : Prohibition of advertisement of certain drugs for treatment of diseases and disorders

        B:-Section 4 of the Drug and Magic Remedies Act : Prohibition of misleading advertisement relating to drugs

        C:-Both Section 3 and Section 4 of the Drug and Magic Remedies Act

        D:-Section 5 of the Drug and Magic Remedies Act : prohibition of advertisement of magic remedies for certain diseases and disorders

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-During the development of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani (ASU) drugs/Patent or Proprietary Medicines, the following objectives are satisfied in which stage of clinical trials ?

   I.  To evaluate the effectiveness of an ASU drug/Patent or Proprietary Medicines for a particular indication or indications in patients with the condition under study and to determine

the common short-term side-effects and risks associated with the drug.

  II.  Evaluation of potential study endpoints, therapeutic regimens (including concomitant medications) and target populations (e.g. mild versus severe disease) for further studies.

        A:-Therapeutic exploratory trials

        B:-Human Pharmacology

        C:-Therapeutic confirmatory trials

        D:-Post Marketing Trials

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-The principle of ethics that states "The due observance of all the principles, guidelines or prescriptions laid down generally or in respect of the research or experiment" is

        A:-Principles of totality of responsibility

        B:-Principles of compliance

        C:-Principles of institutional arrangements

        D:-Principles of accountability and transparency

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-Congealing point is a quality control parameter suitable for


        B:-Asava Arishta



        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question20:-Nasya is included in

        A:-Oral route of drug administration

        B:-Nasal route of drug administration

        C:-Parenteral route of drug administration

        D:-Topical application

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-Identify the medicinal formulation from the following description :

Karpoora, tamra and loha are among the ingredients. Madhu is used for mixing and homogenization of the powdered ingredients. Four gunja is the recommended classical dose.

        A:-Chandrodaya rasa

        B:-Chandraprabha vati

        C:-Chandramrita rasa

        D:-Purna chandrodaya rasa

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-Identify the formulation from the description : Useful in apasmara and ajeerna. Hingula and Vatsanabhi are among the ingredients. Jambeera rasa is the bhavan dravya

and one gunja is the dose.

        A:-Arogyavardhini vati

        B:-Karpura rasa

        C:-Ananda bhairava rasa

        D:-Kasthuri bhairava rasa

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question23:-This formulation has only one ingredient which undergoes bhavana in amalaki rasa. The dose of the formulation is dwivallam. The ingredient and yoga is

        A:-Gairika, Kamadudha rasa

        B:-Gairika, Kasthurbhairava rasa

        C:-Sankha bhasma, Kamadudha rasa

        D:-Swarna bhasma, Kasthuri bhairava rasa

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-Following are the ingredients of vasantha kusumakara rasa except

        A:-Kantaloha bhasma

        B:-Rajata bhasma

        C:-Yasada bhasma

        D:-Pravala bhasma

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question25:-This formulation has to be taken in empty stomach and raktha sali annam is preferred. The parpati preparation among the following providing rasayana effect is

        A:-Sweta parpati

        B:-Rasa parpati

        C:-Loha parpati

        D:-Pancamrita parpati

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-The ganas used in the preparation of ayaskriti kalpa as per Ashtanga Hridaya is

        A:-Argwadhadi, Asanadi

        B:-Asanadai, Vatsakadi

        C:-Argwadadi, Vatskadi

        D:-Thriphala, Eladi

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question27:-All drugs are included in the essential drug list of Ayurveda except

        A:-Thriphala ghritha



        D:-Sukumara avaleha

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-The dhathu bhasmas as ingredients present in hemagarbha pottali is

        A:-Rajatha bhasma and Swarna bhasma

        B:-Rajatha bhasma and Tamra bhasma

        C:-Swarna bhasma and Loha bhasma

        D:-Swarna bhasma and Tamra bhasma

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-All are ingredients of Swarna vanga except




        D:-Gouri pashana

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question30:-Khamira, lavuka and majun are dosage forms similar to

        A:-Avaleha kalpana

        B:-Arka kalpana

        C:-Kwatha kalpana

        D:-Phanta kalpana

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question31:-The correct statement regarding preservatives is

        A:-Preservatives should be effective against selected organisms anticipated in the formulation

        B:-Preservatives should interact with the ingredients of the medicinal formulations so as to impart a positive effect to the body

        C:-Preservatives should have a pleasant odour and taste

        D:-Preservatives should remain stable throughout the shelf life of the product under preservation

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-Identify the formulation specifically indicated in vishama jwara, when administered along with thila thaila is

        A:-Kapaha kethu rasa

        B:-Icchabhedi rasa

        C:-Rasona kalka

        D:-Lavangadi vati

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question33:-Which among the following is an ingredient of rasna sapthaka kashaya ?

        A:-Tinospora crispa (L.) Hook. f. & Thomson

        B:-Boerhavia diffusa L. nom. Cons

        C:-Celastrus dependens Wall

        D:-Both 1 and 2

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question34:-Which among the following is not a specific indication of Chyavana prasha avaleha as per Charaka Samhitha ?


        B:-Vatha sonitha

        C:-Uro roga

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question35:-How much vamsalochana is necessary for the preparation of sithopaladai choorna and thaleesadi choorna respectively, if the quantity of ela taken is 50 g ?

        A:-400 g and 500 g

        B:-500 g and 400 g

        C:-400 g and 600 g

        D:-300 g and 200 g

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Statement A : Lavana bhaskara choorna should be packed in airtight glass containers or good quality plastic containers.

Statement B : Apamarga kshara and sarja kshara present in lavana bhaskara choorna are largely corrosive.

        A:-Both A and B are correct and B is the correct explanation of A

        B:-Both A and B are correct and B is not the correct explanation of A

        C:-A only is correct

        D:-B only is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question37:-The dose and anupana respectively of sanjeevani vati in vishoochika is

        A:-500 mg, Madhu

        B:-250 mg, Ardraka swarasa

        C:-250 mg, Madhu

        D:-750 mg, Ardraka swarasa

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-The medium of application of chandrodaya varti is



        C:-Darvi kashaya


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-The ideal anupana for kaisora guggulu in vrana is

        A:-Vasa kashaya

        B:-Varunadi kashaya

        C:-Khadira kwatha

        D:-Aragwadha kwatha

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-The yoga specifically indicated for hanu sangraha, manda chankramana, kalaya khanja and pangu is

        A:-Maha masha thaila

        B:-Maha narayana thaila

        C:-Chagaladyam ghritha

        D:-Lasunadi ghritha

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-The arishta specifically indicated for apasmara and rakthapitha is





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-The time period of the Rasasastra book written by Sri Sadanada Sarma is


  century AD


 century AD


 century AD


 century AD

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question43:-Which among the following statements is in favour of rasa oushadhis ?

        A:-Most of the rasa oushadhis are in a tablet or powder form and distributed as unit dosage forms

        B:-Rasa oushadhis are generally tasteless and odourless

        C:-They are fast acting due to their ability to impart quick deepana and pachana

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question44:-All processes are used for sodhana of various minerals and metals except





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question45:-The color imparted on bhasmas after successful lohitheekarana is





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question46:-All bhasma pareekshas are intended to test the fineness of particle in a bhasma except




        D:-Both 2 and 3

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-Drutatwa, nirlepata and laghutwa are the indications of



        C:-Swanga seetha


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question48:-Find out the false statement from the following (based on Rasa tarangini)

        A:-Both dravaka gana and mitra panchaka are used for melting of metals or minerals

        B:-Dravaka gana contains guda instead of guggulu in mitrapanchaka

        C:-Dravaka gana has six ingredients and mitrapanchaka has five ingredients

        D:-All drugs of mitrapanchaka are included in dravaka gana

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question49:-The musha specifically used for the preparation of parpati is

        A:-Vrintaka moosha

        B:-Pakwa moosha

        C:-Malla moosha

        D:-Gara moosha

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-The puta used for the preparation of gouri pashana bhasma is

        A:-Valuka puta

        B:-Bhanda puta

        C:-Bhudara puta

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question51:-Statement A : Preferably mercury should be kept in Aluminum vessels.

Statement B : Mercury cannot form amalgam with aluminum.

        A:-Both A and B are correct and B is the correct explanation of A

        B:-Both A and B are correct and B is not the correct explanation of A

        C:-Both A and B are wrong

        D:-A only is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-A 35 year old male suddenly developed a "pins and needle" sensation on hands, feet and around mouth with loss of peripheral vision. His walking was soon impaired with

difficulty in speech, hearing and walking. Which among the following better explains the symptoms ?

        A:-Ate shell fish like shrimp and lobster causing acute toxicity related to organic mercury compounds

        B:-Inhaled mercury vapors from a broken BP apparatus

        C:-Accidentally ingested of metallic mercury

        D:-Occupational exposure to inorganic mercury compounds

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question53:-The parada dosha causing beeja dosha is

        A:-Naga dosha

        B:-Chapalya dosha

        C:-Vanga dosha

        D:-Giri dosha

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question54:-If asudha tamra bhasma is taken for the preparation of hridayarnava rasa, the parada bandha applicable is

        A:-Hatha bandha

        B:-Kriyaheena bandha

        C:-Abhasa bandha

        D:-Pishtika bandha

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-Bhuchari, khechari, yuva etc. are the classification of





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question56:-Vali palitha nasana among the following is

        A:-Thulya guna bali jaritha parada

        B:-Dwiguna bali jaritha parada

        C:-Thriguna bali jaritha parada

        D:-Chathurguna bali jaritha parada

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-All are examples of sagandha sagni murchana except

        A:-Rasa sindoora

        B:-Sameera pannaga rasa

        C:-Malla sindura

        D:-Rasa karpoora

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question58:-The asudha abhraka sevana dosha among the following is




        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-Elathoya is the sodhana dravya of



        C:-Karpoora Silajathu


        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question60:-As per Rasarnava, mrittikabha, gudabha and pashanabha are the varieties of





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-The dose of Gandhaka rasayana as per Ayurveda prakasha is

        A:-12 g

        B:-250 mg

        C:-3 g

        D:-500 mg

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question62:-The incorrect statement regarding Silajathu is

        A:-Yusa and mamasa rasa are contraindicated during silajathu seva

        B:-The health effects of silajathu are attributed to its fulvic acid content

        C:-Tapyadi vati contains silajathu

        D:-For a madhyama roga avastha, silajathu has to be administered for a duration of three weeks

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-The correct statement regarding Gandhaka is

        A:-The boiling point of gandhaka is 112.8 degree celcius

        B:-Orpiment is an ore of sulphur

        C:-Khatik gandhaka is useful rasa-rasayana

        D:-Vata kapha vikaraas are generally associated with asudha gandhaka seva

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question64:-The incorrect statement regarding Kasisa is

        A:-Rajapravartini vati contains Kasisa in an appropriate form

        B:-Kasisa drava is a drug of choice for gudabhramsa

        C:-Kasisa is jwaraghna and netrya

        D:-Kasisa is considered as a safe drug and the maximum dose of kasisa bhasma is rathika tritaya

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question65:-Statement A : Arsenic is highly toxic in its organic forms and can cause long term health effects such as hyperkeratosis, cancer and developmental delay.

Statement B : Arsenic in harithala, manasila and gouripashana and their processed forms are mainly in inorganic form.

        A:-Both A and B are correct and B is the correct explanation of A

        B:-Both A and B are correct and B is not the correct explanation of A

        C:-A only is correct

        D:-B only is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-The incorrect statement among the following regarding Anjana

        A:-Souviranjana is stibnite or antimonite

        B:-Puspanjana is red in colour

        C:-The broken surfaces of the mineral srotoanjana possess blue colour

        D:-Nilanjana is lead compound named Galena

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-Identify the sadharana rasa from the following description.

One of the ingredients of kshara parpati and marana is not necessary. The sodhitha drug is useful in pleeha roga, hrudayamaya and netra vikaras. The dose of the drug is two to eight






        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question68:-As per Rasa jalanidhi, which among the following is the incorrect amayika prayoga of Swarna bhasma ?

        A:-Swarna bhasma with kunkuma kesara as kanthi vardhaka

        B:-Swarna bhasma with Sundi, lavanga and marica curna for unmada

        C:-Swarna bhasma with Ksheera as vrishya

        D:-Swarna bhasma with ghee as rasayana

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question69:-The incorrect statement regarding Tamra (Copper) is

        A:-Mlecha tamra is the agrahya variety

        B:-Vidaha and chittasanthapa are tamra visha as per Ayurveda Prakasha

        C:-Up to 50% of copper is excreted through urine

        D:-Nityanda rasa contains an appropriate form of tamra

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question70:-The incorrect statement regarding pravala is

        A:-Vidruma is the synonym of pravala

        B:-As per Rasa Tarangini, Araktha manjula chayam is the agrahy swarupa of pravala

        C:-Pravala is visha hara and veerya vivardhaka

        D:-Sarvanga sundara rasa contains pravala in an appropriate form

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question71:-The most appropriate dose of Yavakshara is

        A:-Three rathi to 10 rathi

        B:-Three rathi to 12 rathi

        C:-Two rathi to 8 rathi

        D:-One rathi to 15 rathi

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Read the following sentence and find out the correct statement/statements :

  I.  All agni deepana oushadhas are Amampachana, the best example being Chitraka.

 II.  Mala paka and bandha bhedana is the property of sramsanam.

III.  Guggulu is the example of a rasayana drug.

 IV.  "Ushnatwath drvasoshakam" is lekhanam.

        A:-I, II and III are correct

        B:-Only III is correct

        C:-III and IV are correct

        D:-All are wrong

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question73:-The incorrect statement regarding mana paribhasha as per srestha mana is

        A:-One tanka is 4 masha which is equivalent to three grams

        B:-Six rathi constitute one hema

        C:-One pichu is equal to one pala (48 ml of water)

        D:-One ardha saravaka is equal to four palas (196 ml of water)

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-The drug that preferably be used after one year is




        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-Which among the following is a best practice for collecting medicinal plants ?

        A:-Best time for the collection of medicinal plants should be determined based on the total vegetative yield of the targeted plant

        B:-If root is the active part of a plant, for better efficacy, tap root has to be collected

        C:-It is always a good practice to keep small amount of soil with the collected roots and barks to keep them biologically active

        D:-Longitudinal stripes of bark should be collected along one side of the tree

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-Find out the correct statement regarding drug collection.

        A:-If the type of kshara is not specified, apamarga kshara should be taken

        B:-If part for collection is not specified, root should be taken

        C:-If the type of jeeraka is not specified, krishna jeeraka should be taken

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question77:-The drug not included in panchabhadra is



        C:-Swetha chandana


        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question78:-Find out true combination/combinations regarding substitutes :

  I.  Aabraka sattva – kanta lauha

 II.  Madhu – Khanda sita

III.  Sali – Shashtika

 IV.  Go pitha – Vatsanabha decoction

        A:-I, II and III

        B:-II and IV

        C:-I and III

        D:-All are true combinations

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-The ratio of drug to water in kwatha preparation is 1 : 8 for

        A:-Madhyama dravyas

        B:-Kathina dravyas

        C:-Both 1 and 2

        D:-Athyanthaa kathina dravyas

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question80:-As per Hareetha Samhitha, the type of kwatha that requires only boiling is





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question81:-The ratio of drug to water in the preparation of Shadanga paniya is

        A:-4 : 64

        B:-4 : 16

        C:-1 : 64

        D:-1 : 16

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question82:-Statement A : The tendency of olive oil for auto-oxidation and further rancidity is higher than coconut oil.

Statement B : Iodine value of olive oil is considerably higher than coconut oil.

        A:-Both A and B are correct and B is the correct explanation of A

        B:-Both A and B are correct and B is not the correct explanation of A

        C:-A only is correct

        D:-B only is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question83:-A 22 year old male presenting with dry skin and mucosa, flushing, mydriasis, sinus tachycardia, hyperpyrexia, decreased bowel activity, urinary retention, and

neurological disorders like ataxia, disorientation, confusion, hallucinations (visual and auditory), psychosis, agitated delirium, seizures, and coma mostly suffered poisoning with





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-The correct statement regarding Dhoomapana is

        A:-Vrana dhoopana is a variety of Dhoomapana as per Susrutha Samhitha

        B:-The length of dhooma nadi for theekshna dhoomapana is 40 angulas

        C:-Dhooma nadi should have two parvas

        D:-Eladi gana is best for samana dhoomapana

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question85:-The type of putapaka intended for improving vision is





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-The incorrect statement regarding the classical indications of annadi kalpana is

        A:-Sroto mardavam is achieved by manda

        B:-Laja manda is grahi

        C:-Peya is kanthya and laghupaka

        D:-Vilepi is hrudya and pitha nasini

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-The incorrect statement regarding fermentation is

        A:-Fermentation generally occurs under aerobic conditions, the exemption being Saccharomyces cerevisiae, which do not require oxygen to thrive

        B:-Fermentation is a sort of pre-digestion, in which complex molecules are broken down for easy digestion

        C:-Fermented food products are often pro-biotics that provides gut health and aid in immunity

        D:-Fermentation neutralizes phytates in grains to facilitate proper nutrient absorption

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question88:-The incorrect statement regarding Arisht asavas is

        A:-As per the general method of preparation of arishta asavas, 20 grams of prakshepas are necessary if honey is 200 grams

        B:-Generally, the dose of arishta asavas as per Sarangdhara Samhitha is one pala

        C:-Reducing sugar content and alcohol percentage are good quality control parameters for a specific Arishta or Asava

        D:-Karpoora asava and ahiphena asava as per sahasrayoga prepared using mrita sanjeevani sura

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-The incorrect statement regarding Sneha kalpana is

        A:-The quantity of sneha in a thaila preparing with 100 grams madhuka pushpa kalka is 800 grams

        B:-For proper paka of kalka, 4 times water should be added during ghritha preparation with dasamoola kashaya

        C:-"Thulye kalkena niryasa" is an indicator of mrudupaka

        D:-As per sarangdhara, madhyama paka sneha is "Sarvakarmasu yogyam"

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-The incorrect statement regarding Ksheera paka is

        A:-The drug : ksheera : water ratio in ksheerapaka as per Sarangdhara is 1 : 8 :32

        B:-The drug : ksheera : water ratio in ksheerapaka as per dravya guna vijnana is 1 : 15 : 15

        C:-The drug : ksheera : water ratio in rasona ksheera paka is 1 : 8 : 8

        D:-Preparation of kwatha and subsequent boiling with ksheera to prepare ksheerapaka is suggested by Ashtang Sangraha

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-Binding, filming and laminating are the

        A:-Coating methods in tablet making

        B:-Problems during tablet making

        C:-Issues with syrup preparation

        D:-Quality parameters for tablets

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question92:-IF the cumulative quantity of powdered drugs are 100 grams, the quantity of Guggulu for vati preparation is

        A:-100 grams

        B:-50 grams

        C:-200 grams

        D:-400 grams

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question93:-When a drug powder is sieved, all the particles of the powdered drug passed through Sieve No. 44 and not more than 40 percent passed through Sieve No. 85. The drug

powder is

        A:-Coarse powder

        B:-Moderately coarse powder

        C:-Moderately fine powder

        D:-Fine powder

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question94:-The sthanya vardhaka yoga that should be taken early morning with aja kshea as anupana is

        A:-Musali paka

        B:-Soubhagya sunthi paka

        C:-Nalikera khanda

        D:-Thikthaka gritham

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-For urdhwajathrugatha rogas, the best time for administration of Avaleha is

        A:-Noon time

        B:-Morning time

        C:-Evening time

        D:-Muhur muhur

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question96:-The correct method of preparation of Mosabbar is

        A:-Kumari swarasa is dried in sunlight

        B:-Kumari swarasa is cooked in mandagni to attain avaleha paka

        C:-Kumari swarasa is cooked in a lohapatra in mandagni and then dried in sunlight

        D:-Kumari swarasa is boiled with khanda sita and water till attaining lehyapaka and then dried in sunlight

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-The incorrect combination of arka and its indication is

        A:-Yavanyadi arka – Jwara

        B:-Pancakoladi arka – Vishuchika

        C:-Gulabi arka – Atisara

        D:-Triphaladi arka – Vrana

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question98:-The ratio of thandula and water in vilepi is

        A:-1 : 14

        B:-1 : 4

        C:-1 : 16

        D:-1 : 6

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-The general prakshepa matra of silajathu in kwatha is

        A:-500 mg

        B:-3 g

        C:-6 g

        D:-750 mg

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-Additional kashaya kalpana mentioned in Kasyapa Samhitha when compared to Sarangdhara Samhitha is





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

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30 June 2022

[Solved paper] Junior Instructor Fashion Design Technology 332/2019| previous question paper Junior Instructor Fashion Design Technology

[Solved paper]  Junior Instructor Fashion Design Technology 332/2019| previous question paper |Junior Instructor Fashion Design Technology

 PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Junior Instructor Fashion Design Technology 332/2019

Question Paper Code: 29/2022/OL

Category Code: 332/2019

Exam: Junior Instructor (Fashion Design Technology) (SR for SC/ST and ST only)

Date of Test: 07-06-2022

Department:  Industrial Training

Alpha code:  A

Question1:-Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(i)     In a picture, the shapes that the artist has placed are considered the negative spaces

(ii)    In a picture, the shapes that the artist has placed are considered the positive spaces

(iii)   In a picture, the shapes that the artist has placed are considered the positive spaces and the spaces around the shapes are the negative spaces

        A:-Only (i) is correct

        B:-(ii) and (iii) are correct

        C:-Only (ii) is correct

        D:-Only (iii) is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-________ is the quality of an object which we sense through touch.




        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question3:-Primary colours are

        A:-Red, Violet, Yellow

        B:-Red, Green, Violet

        C:-Blue, Red, White

        D:-Red, Yellow, Blue

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question4:-Tints are made by

        A:-Adding black to a pure hue

        B:-Adding white to a pure hue

        C:-Adding grey to a pure hue

        D:-Adding green to a pure hue

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question5:-Which among the following is not a part of Principles of Design?





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-In 8-head theory-the third head length is

        A:-just below the knee

        B:-waist line


        D:-chest line

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-Which among the following statements is/are incorrect?

(i)     Balance can not be asymmetrical

(ii)    Balance can create movement, tension or calmness

(iii)   Proportion involves the relationship between sizes and scale

(iv)   Harmony can create feelings

        A:-(i) is incorrect

        B:-(i) and (ii) are incorrect

        C:-(iii) and (iv) are incorrect

        D:-All the statements are incorrect

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-A stick figure can be drawn by using

        A:-Only dots

        B:-Only lines

        C:-Lines, dots and curves

        D:-Only curves

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-Which stripes make someone to looks taller?

        A:-Diagonal and horizontal




        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question10:-Which medium of colour  is most suitable to render fall or folds in heavy weight fabrics?





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question11:-Chekkutty doll-the doll created by using handloom sarees affected on flood 2018-the mascot of a new kerala rebuilding itself. Who designed chekkutty doll?

        A:-Lakshmi Priya

        B:-Lakshmi Menon

        C:-Priya Lakshmi

        D:-Priya Menon

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question12:-'Allen Solly' is a clothing brand from





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-'PRANAAH' is a kerala fashion brand lead by

        A:-Kavya Madhavan

        B:-Poornima Indrajith

        C:-Sameera Saneesh

        D:-Saritha Jayasurya

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question14:-Lakme fashion week held in


        B:-Los Angeles



        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question15:-Miss Universe 2021 is

        A:-Nadia Ferreira

        B:-Harnaaz Sandhu

        C:-Andrea Meza

        D:-Julia Gama

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-The famous fashion brand 'Max' established in India in the year





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question17:-Rohit Bal is famous for designing

        A:-Kids wear

        B:-Men's wear

        C:-Men's and women's wear

        D:-Women's wear

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question18:-An outfit means

        A:-Gents wear

        B:-Ladies wear

        C:-Kids wear

        D:-A set of clothes

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question19:-Calvin Klein is an international fashion designer-who belonging from which among the following countries?





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question20:-A small shop selling fashionable clothes or accessories called

        A:-Fashion store




        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-A fashion cycle has how many stages?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question22:-A style that lasts for several seasons? Sometimes even years called





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question23:-Which among the below fabrics is widely used in kids wear?





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question24:-Popees baby care is located in





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question25:-Which among the below is suitable to use in light weight or sheer fabric to create a perfect finish?

        A:-Slot seam

        B:-French seam

        C:-Lapped seam

        D:-Pinked seam

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question26:-Among the below statements which is /are correct?

(i)     Silk and rayon are natural

(ii)    Cotton and linen are natural

(iii)   Rayon is natural

        A:-(i) is a correct

        B:-(iii) is correct

        C:-(ii) is correct

        D:-(i) and (ii) are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-A one piece garment consisting of trousers, a piece of cloth which covers your chest and straps which go over your shoulder - called

        A:-A jabla

        B:-A swim suit

        C:-A duangaree

        D:-A saree

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Tucks coming to a point are called





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question29:-Styling ideas is called

        A:-Fashion trend

        B:-Fashion style

        C:-Fashion cycle

        D:-Fashion forecasting

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question30:-Which among the below is a rule for selection of Miss India?

        A:-The participant should not be an Indian by birth

        B:-The participant should either be an Indian by birth or not

        C:-The participant should not exceed the age of 35

        D:-The participant should be an Indian by birth

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question31:-A lever attached to the presser bar for raising and lowering the presser foot is called

        A:-Presser foot

        B:-Feed dog

        C:-Presser foot lifter

        D:-Stitch regulator

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-Fabric puckering may due to

        A:-Blunt needle

        B:-Too little pressure on presser foot

        C:-Lack of oil

        D:-Bobbin too full

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question33:-The needle size suitable to stitch heavy upholstery fabrics is





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question34:-Which among the below is worn on finger to protect it from being pricked or poked by a needle while sewing?

        A:-Finger cap

        B:-Finger cover

        C:-Finger thimble

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-Brother-the sewing machine brand is originated in





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Which is the unique sari embroidery of Karnataka that uses religious motif?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-Which one is a domestic art, that its base is of waste materials?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question38:-Which embroidery is considered as a needle painting so vivid and lively are the expression on the face and movements of bodies?



        C:-Kasuti Embroidery

        D:-Chamba Embroidery

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-Which of the following four stitches used in Kasuti?

        A:-Gavanti, Murgi, Negi, Aari

        B:-Gavanti, Murgi, Aari, Menthi

        C:-Gavanti, Murgi, Negi, Menthi

        D:-Gavanti, Mutwa, Negi, Aari

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-What is "KOKA"?

        A:-A small stead of single diamond or ruby fixed at the corner of left nostril

        B:-A small stead of single diamond fixed at the corner of right nostril

        C:-A small stead of single ruby fixed at the corner of right nostril

        D:-A small stead of single ruby fixed at the top of the left ear

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-Which is not an accessory for the ear?





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question42:-Which are not variations of Back Stitch?

        A:-Prick Stitch/Slip Stitch

        B:-Prick Stitch/Pick Stitch

        C:-Slip Stitch/Pick Stitch

        D:-Slip Stitch/Whip Stitch

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-Which stitch is used to neaten raw edges particularly on seam allowance?

        A:-Running stitch

        B:-Prick stitch

        C:-Overcast stitch

        D:-Back stitch

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question44:-A round, narrow, long scarf made of feathers, pleated silk or fur?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question45:-A glove with four fingers separates and thumb separated





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question46:-Any paid messages in the media used to increase sales is called





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question47:-A French Word for a small shop with unusual clothing and atmosphere



        C:-Pret-e porter


        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question48:-A short double breasted jacket fastened on left side and tight fitting up to the waist worn in Himachal Pradesh known as





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question49:-Which of the following is not the traditional name of dupatta?





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-The portion of choli covering the breast area is called





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question51:-Which collar resembles a shirt collar in all respects expect that it lays flat on the shoulder?

        A:-Wing collar

        B:-Tennis collar

        C:-Peterpan collar

        D:-Shawl collar

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question52:-A system of pattern making that depends on measurements taken from a form or model to create basic pattern is


        B:-Marker planning


        D:-Pattern drafting

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question53:-Basic pattern set consist of

        A:-4-piece pattern set

        B:-3-piece pattern set

        C:-6-piece pattern set

        D:-5-piece pattern set

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question54:-It is a complete record of all pattern pieces with in the pattern set which all includes swatches, and special pattern information?

        A:-Cost Sheet

        B:-Pattern Chart

        C:-Spec sheet

        D:-Tech pack

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-A wedge shape cut out in a pattern controls the fit of a garment is





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question56:-A plain-woven cotton made from bleached or unbleached yarn in a variety of weights, mainly used for draping?





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-The narrow firmly woven and finished strip on both lengthwise grain edges of the woven fabric


        B:-Grain line



        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question58:-A vertical line that is at right angles with the floor used to determine the balance of the figure

        A:-Symmetrical line

        B:-Asymmetrical line

        C:-Grain line

        D:-Plumb line

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-The widest part of the sleeve dividing cap from the lower sleeve is known as

        A:-Cap height

        B:-Elbow level

        C:-Bicep's level

        D:-Wrist level

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question60:-The act of slashing and spreading or pivoting and pattern section to alter its original shape?

        A:-Pattern plot

        B:-Pattern manipulation

        C:-Marker making


        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question61:-This measurement is taken 10 cm below the base of the neck passing the measuring tape over the shoulder blades

        A:-Neck measurement

        B:-Sleeve round

        C:-Chest round

        D:-Across back

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-Triangular pieces of fabric inset to give a flared or pleated effect at the hem





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-Which pocket included in a seam so that it lies within the garment?

        A:-Patch pocket

        B:-Inseam pocket

        C:-Bound pocket

        D:-Welt pocket

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question64:-Which principle part of sewing machine controls the flow of needle thread?

        A:-Needle bar

        B:-Take up lever

        C:-Tension disk

        D:-Presser foot

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question65:-Which part of the sewing machine holds the fabric against the feed dog?

        A:-Tension desk

        B:-Take up lever

        C:-Presser foot

        D:-Needle plate

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-Choose the most appropriate option for removing lipstick stain

        A:-Use of salt water

        B:-Soak in ammonia

        C:-Wash with hot water and soap

        D:-Sponge with methylated spirit

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question67:-The process of preventive problem management where the problem is solved and the solution put in place so that the problem does not occur?

        A:-Quality standards

        B:-Quality control

        C:-Quality inspection

        D:-Quality assurance

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-Choose the appropriate expansion of the abbreviation of TQM

        A:-Total Quantity Management

        B:-Total Quality Management

        C:-Total Quantitative Management

        D:-Total Qualitative Management

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Which series provides guideline for performing an audit of a quality system in an organization?

        A:-ISO 10011

        B:-ISO 10111

        C:-ISO 11000

        D:-ISO 11011

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-The method in which an absorbent paper or fabric placed under the stain so that the right side of the stain faces the absorbing surface is known as





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question71:-Choose the correct appropriate option for removing Iron rust on cloth?

        A:-Rub with lime juice and salt

        B:-Use salt water

        C:-Wash with soap and cold water

        D:-Soak in methylated spirit

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Choose the most appropriate option for removing Blood stain on cloth?

        A:-Soak in glycerin

        B:-Soak in hot water

        C:-Soak in lime juice

        D:-Soak in salt water

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-Choose the appropriate expansion of the abbreviation of ISO?

        A:-Indian Organization for Standards

        B:-International Standards for Organization

        C:-International Organization for Standardization

        D:-Indian Standards for Organization

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Which of the following geometrical shape represent bleaching?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question75:-It is a graphical depiction of a no. of occurrence of an event in a bar chart or a bar graph?

        A:-Flow chart

        B:-Cause and effect diagram

        C:-Check sheet


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-The primary colours described in pigment theory of colours

        A:-Blue, Green, Purple

        B:-Red, Blue, Yellow

        C:-Red, Yellow, Purple

        D:-Pink, Purple, Red

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question77:-Colour brightness is called





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-Circular chart used to show colour relationships is called a

        A:-Colour ray

        B:-Colour wheel

        C:-Colour circle

        D:-Colour scheme

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-To make a shade, you would add ________ to a colour.





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question80:-What words are used to describe colour temperature?

        A:-Light and Dark

        B:-Hot and Cold

        C:-Black and White

        D:-Warm and Cool

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question81:-What colour is the result of mixing red + yellow + blue?





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question82:-Three colours that are equal distance apart on the colour wheel are called

        A:-Intermediate or Tertiary colours

        B:-Analogous colours

        C:-Colour triad

        D:-Complementary colours

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-Which colours will give you the greatest contrast?

        A:-Red and Blue

        B:-Red and Green

        C:-Blue and Green

        D:-Green and Yellow

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-What are the colours formed, by mixing primary and secondary colours?

        A:-Monochromatic Colours

        B:-Tertiary Colours

        C:-Complimentary Colours

        D:-Intensity Colours

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-What does saturating a colour do?

        A:-Make the colour pale

        B:-Changes the colour transparency

        C:-Changes the intensity of the colour

        D:-Makes a new colour

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-Introduction of tuck stitch into a single jersey construction makes the resultant fabric

        A:-Lighter, thinner and wider

        B:-Lighter, thicker and narrower

        C:-Heavier, thicker and wider

        D:-Heavier, thicker and narrower

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question87:-Enzyme desizing of cotton is carried out with the help of





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question88:-Which one of the following fibres is most resistant to attack by micro-organisms?





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question89:-What will be the resultant count when two yarns of 12s Ne and 16s Ne are plied together?

        A:-14s Ne

        B:-13s Ne

        C:-6.8s Ne

        D:-9.8s Ne

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question90:-Dyeing of acrylic is carried out by using

        A:-Vat dye

        B:-Cationic dye

        C:-Acid dye

        D:-Disperse dye

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question91:-Which of the following chemical is used in the souring of cotton?

        A:-Washing soda

        B:-Caustic potash

        C:-Caustic soda

        D:-Sulphuric acid

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-In shuttleless weaving, weft waste is minimum on

        A:-Air-jet loom

        B:-Water-jet loom

        C:-Rapier loom

        D:-Multi-phase loom

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-In a carding machine, fibre straightening it attained to a maximum extent in

        A:-Cylinder to flats carding region

        B:-Cylinder to doffer transfer region

        C:-Licker-in to cylinder transfer region

        D:-Cylinder to under casing region

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-Nylon 6 and Nylon 66 filaments can be distinguished by

        A:-Melting point test

        B:-Burning test

        C:-Optical microscopy

        D:-Density measurement

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question95:-In a draw frame, higher top roller pressure is used for polyester fibres compared to cotton fibres because they have

        A:-Lower compressional resilience

        B:-Lower density

        C:-Higher inter fibre friction

        D:-Lower moisture absorption

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-Six slivers are doubled together and given three passages on draw-frame. The number of doublings is





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-Mercerization of a cotton fabric is carried out by

        A:-Sodium chloride

        B:-Sodium hypochlorite

        C:-Sodium hydroxide

        D:-Sodium chlorite

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-The density of polyester fibre is

        A:-More than that of cotton

        B:-More than that of nylon but less than that of cotton

        C:-Same as that of nylon

        D:-More than that of polypropylene but less than that of nylon

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-In a Projectile Sulzer loom, the number of projectiles depends on

        A:-Projectile Mass

        B:-Torsion-bar arrangement

        C:-Loom width

        D:-Projectile length

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-In a flatbed knitting machine the loop length is controlled by

        A:-Raising cam

        B:-Stitch cam

        C:-Clearing cam

        D:-Guard cam

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

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