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26 January 2024

[Solved paper]Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Question paper 665/2022

 [Solved paper]Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Question paper 665/2022

Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper

Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC Question paper 665/2022

Question Paper Code: 169/2023/OL

Category Code: 665/2022

Exam: Assistant Engineer (Agriculture)

Date of Test:  18-12-2023

Department: Agriculture Development and Farmers Welfare

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY Assistant Engineer Agriculture Kerala PSC

Question1:-The name of attachment to the MB plough bottom used to cut trash,

avoid clogging and to obtain a neat furrow wall is



        C:-Trash shield

        D:-Gauge wheel

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the draft

requirement of disc ploughs?

i.    Draft is influenced by the speed of operation.

ii.   Cross sectional area of the furrow does not influence the draft requirement

iii. Diameter of the disc and concavity have considerable effect on draft.

iv. Increasing the tilt angle decreases the draft.

        A:-i, ii and iii are correct

        B:-ii and iv are correct

        C:-i and iii are correct

        D:-all are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question3:-Which of the following methods are used to change the seed rate in a

fluted roller type metering mechanism?

i.    Shifting the rollers sideways to change the length of grooves exposed to the


ii    Change the adjustable gate opening at the discharge side

iii.   Changing the speed of driving square shaft of the fluted roller

        A:-i, ii and iii

        B:-only i

        C:-ii and iii

        D:-i and iii

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question4:-___________ type plough bottoms are flavoured in dry areas where the

soil is rough and stony.

        A:-Rolling bottom

        B:-Sliding bottom

        C:-Chisel type bottom

        D:-Lister bottoms

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question5:-A virtual point on tractor, midway between the rear wheels and in line

with axle is named as

        A:-Center of pull

        B:-Center of load

        C:-Drawbar point

        D:-Hinge point

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question6:-A 2-bottom tractor mounted MB plough of 30 cm width is ploughing at a

depth of 10 cm. If the tractor speed is 5 kmph and field efficiency is 70%, what is

the effective field capacity of ploughing operation.





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-In MB ploughs, the angle normally provided at the cutting edge of share

to the direction of travel in order to obtain turning and immediate inversion is

        A:-20° to 25°

        B:-30° to 35°

        C:-35° to 40°

        D:-40° to 45°

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Ratio of the net pull produced to the dynamic normal load of the

traction device is

        A:-Tractive efficiency

        B:-Net Traction coefficient

        C:-Motion resistance ratio

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-Ratio of seat vibration intensity to chassis vibration intensity in a tractor

is known as

        A:-Transfer function


        C:-Frequency response

        D:-Vibration coefficient

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question10:-The appropriate approach for calculating depreciation when a tractor is

purchased for its entire operational lifespan and not intended for resale is the

        A:-Straight line method

        B:-Compound interest method

        C:-Constant percentage method

        D:-Estimated method

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-In the equation (S = C + N tan φ) to determine the shear stress at the

soil failure surface when a tillage tool moves in soil, which factor is represented by

the letter φ

        A:-Angle of soil cohesion

        B:-Angle of cutting edge

        C:-Angle of internal friction

        D:-Angle of attack

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Which of the following statements are true regarding the fluid

properties affecting droplet size in agricultural spraying?

i.    increased surface tension decreases the size of droplets

ii.   increased surface tension increases the size of droplets

iii. increased viscosity increases droplet sizes

iv. increased viscosity decreases droplet sizes

        A:-i and iii are correct

        B:-ii and iv are correct

        C:-ii and iii are correct

        D:-only ii is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-The rate at which energy is received from the sun on a unit area

perpendicular to the rays of the sun, at mean distance of the earth from the sun will


        A:-1.353 kilowatts per square meter

        B:-1353 W/

        C:-11.65 Langley's

        D:-42.92 Btu per sq.ft

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question14:-The instrument employed for measurement of the total hemispherical

solar radiation is


        B:-sunshine recorder

        C:-eppley pyrheliometer


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question15:-The area of the wind streams swept by the wind turbine is maximum,

when blades face into the wind. This is achieved by

        A:-Yaw control

        B:-Pitch control

        C:-Turbine tower system

        D:-Wind stream variation

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question16:-The C:N ratio for best biogas production is 25 to 30 because

        A:-Thermophilic bacteria are active only at C:N ratio of 25 to 30

        B:-C:N ratio of 25 to 30 will avoid scum formation

        C:-The fermentative bacteria use carbon 25 to 30 times as fast as nitrogen

        D:-C:N ratio of 25 to 30 will maintain pH

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question17:-The intensity, duration and frequency of rainfall are interrelated as

        A:- /

        B:- /

        C:- /

        D:- /

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-The contour bunds in heavy and medium rainfall areas, the grades of

the bunds may be __________ towards the outlet.

        A:-0.02 to 0.08%

        B:-0.2 to 0.3%

        C:-2 to 3%

        D:-0.6 to 0.8%

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question19:-Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of the land capability

of different land areas for sustainable crops

        A:-The Slope

        B:-Erosion condition

        C:-The soil depth and soil type


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question20:-Which of the following software will not be used for GIS application






        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-In a Geographical data models, forest, desert, floodplain can be

represented by




        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question22:-The Gunter's chain is ____________ long and divided into _________ links.

        A:-33 ft, 100

        B:-33 ft, 16

        C:-66 ft, 100

        D:-30 ft, 25

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question23:-Which of the following is / are bench marks

i.   GTS bench marks

ii.   Permanent and temporary bench mark

iii. Arbitrary bench mark

iv. Point benchmark

        A:-i and ii only

        B:-i, ii and iii

        C:-iii and iv only

        D:-all the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-The velocity of flow at the toe in Chute Spilway design is given by


        B:- Sq.root of

        C:-V1 =

        D:- Sq.root of

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question25:-If the gully depth is between 1m to 5m, then Gullies are classified as

        A:-Small gullies

        B:-Large gullies

        C:-Medium gullies

        D:-Gullies depth are more than 5 m

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-Recommended maximum velocities in low pressure underground

pipelines are in the range of _______

        A:-2.5 to 3.5 m/s

        B:-2.3 to 2.5 m/s

        C:-1.3 to 1.5 m/s

        D:-0.1 to 0.4 m/s

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question27:-The actual velocity at which water is moving through an aquifer is

related to the Apparent / Seepage velocity given by Darcys law, by the expression

        A:- /n


        C:- /V

        D:- /e

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question28:-The Delta for a crop when its duty is 864 hectares/cumec and base

period is 120 days is

        A:-864 cm

        B:-120 cm

        C:-100 cm

        D:-86.4 cm

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question29:-In the silt theories for design of Alluvial channels by Kennedy which of

the following statements are true :

i.     Silt is kept in suspension by the vertical component of eddies

ii.    Eddies generated from the sides of Trapezoidal channel was neglected

iii.   Critical velocity formula depends only on the depth of flow

iv.    Two regime conditions exist : initial and final regime

        A:-i, ii and iii

        B:-all the above

        C:-ii, iii and iv

        D:-iii and iv

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question30:-The drilling method best adapted for drilling deep holes in

unconsolidated Alluvial formations is

        A:-cable tool percussion drilling

        B:-Rotary drilling

        C:-Air rotary drilling

        D:-Down the hole drilling

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question31:-Which of the following statements are true regarding performance of

centrifugal pumps

i.     The capacity of the pump varies directly as the speed

ii.    The capacity of pump varies directly as the diameter

iii.   The head varies directly as the square of the speed

iv.    The head varies directly as the cube of the diameter

ii, iii and iv

        A:-ii, iii and iv

        B:-All of the above

        C:-i, ii and iii

        D:-none of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-The filter used in Drip irrigation systems to remove suspended

substances with specific gravity greater than 1.2 is

        A:-Media filter

        B:-Screen filter

        C:-Disc filter

        D:-Hydro cyclone filter

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-In a centrifugal pump, the volute casing helps to convert

        A:-Pressure head to velocity head

        B:-Gravity head to velocity head

        C:-Gravity head to pressure head

        D:-Velocity head to pressure head

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question34:-The accessory used to relieve pressure in the tile drain line is

        A:-Junction box

        B:-French drains

        C:-Relief wells and Breathers

        D:-Blind inlets

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-In case of grain, the ratio of the diameter of the largest inscribing

circle to the diameter of the smallest circumscribing circle is known as

        A:-Shape factor



        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-The drag and lift properties of food material are important in designing

        A:-Screw conveyors

        B:-Belt conveyors

        C:-Bucket elevator

        D:-Pneumatic conveyors

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question37:-In __________ separator, the grain shape and the frictional difference

between the grains and belt material are used for separation

        A:-Specific gravity



        D:-Inclined belt

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question38:-The transport property of material that affects heat conduction is

        A:-Thermal conductivity




        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question39:-The overall heat transfer coefficient in a heat exchanger takes into


        A:-Conduction between solid and liquids involved

        B:-Thermal radiation from the liquid and solid surfaces

        C:-Convection in each fluid involved and conduction through the walls

separating the fluids

        D:-Steady state conduction heat transfer and radiation effects only

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-During drying process, the air moving through the grain for removing

moisture is subjected to this thermodynamic process

        A:-Heating and humidifying

        B:-Cooling and humidifying

        C:-Heating and dehumidifying

        D:-Cooling and dehumidifying

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question41:-In multiple effect evaporators, the pressure in the 2nd stage will be

__________ that of the first stage

        A:-Greater than

        B:-Less than

        C:-Same as

        D:-Slightly greater

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question42:-In falling film evaporators, the milk is introduced at the _________ of the

heating unit





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question43:-In a filtration equipment, resistance to filtration arises from two

sources namely the filtering screen and




        D:-filter cake

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question44:-Suitable moisture content for the safe storage of paddy is in the range






        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question45:- value in thermal processing indicates the sum of lethality rate to


        A:-Complete sterilization


        C:-Commercial sterilization


        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-The free moisture available in the grain will be removed first in this

phase of drying

        A:-falling rate drying

        B:-constant rate drying

        C:-rising rate drying

        D:-exponential rate drying

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-One of the effects of the deposition of fouling matter in heat

exchanger tubes in milk processing is that the

        A:-heat transfer rate will be increased

        B:-taste and smell of the milk will become more desirable

        C:-overall heat transfer coefficient will be reduced

        D:-convective heat transfer coefficient will be increased

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question48:-Kick has assumed that the energy required for size reduction is

proportional to the

        A:-size reduction ratio (dL/L)

        B:-rate of area reduction

        C:-rate of volume reduction


        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question49:-A quotient indicating how much more rapidly the reaction proceeds at

a temperature than at a lower temperature is called as

        A:-D value

        B:-TDT value

        C:-Z value

        D:-Q value

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-If bulk density of a material is given as 700 kg/ and true density as

1000 kg/ , its porosity will be





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-When the annual demand of a product is 24,000 units the economic

order quantity (EOQ) is 2000 units. If the annual demand is 48,000 units the most

appropriate EOQ will be

        A:-1400 units

        B:-2000 units

        C:-2800 units

        D:-4000 units

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-In simple exponential smoothing forecasting to five heigher weightage

to recent demand information, the smoothing constant must be equal to





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question53:-Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given below :

Job                      I     II   III   IV    V    VI

Completion time   4    9     5    10    6    8

Average flow time (in days) for the above jobs using shortest processing time rule is





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question54:-In PERT analysis, a critical activity has

        A:-Maximum float

        B:-Zero float

        C:-Maximum cost

        D:-Minimum cost

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-The word Kanban is most appropriate associated with

        A:-Economic order quantity

        B:-Just-in-time production

        C:-Capacity planning

        D:-product design

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question56:-If there are 'm' sources and 'n' destinations in a transportation matrix,

the total number of basic variables in the basic feasible solution is

        A:-m + n

        B:-m - n - 1

        C:-m + n - 1


        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question57:-Which one of the following is not a decision taken during the aggregate

production planning stage?

        A:-Scheduling of machines

        B:-Amount of labor to be committed

        C:-Rate at which production should happen

        D:-Inventory to be carried forward

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question58:-Determination of standard time in complex job system is best done


        A:-Stop watch time study

        B:-Analysis of micro motions

        C:-Group timing techniques

        D:-Analysis of standard date systems

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-Which of the following are the principles of material handling?

        A:-keep all handling to the minimum

        B:-move as few pieces as possible in one unit

        C:-move the heaviest weight to the least distance

        D:-select only efficient handling equipment

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-The routing function in a production system design is concerned with

        A:-man power utilization

        B:-machine utilization

        C:-quality assurance of a product

        D:-optimizing material flow through the plant

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question61:-Number of nearest neighboring atoms on FCC crystal is




        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-Choose the correct statements for normalizing

i.   Normalizing improves strength

ii. Normalizing increase hardness

iii. Normalizing removes internal stresses

iv. Normalizing improve toughness.

        A:-i and ii are correct

        B:-iii and iv are correct

        C:-i and iv are correct

        D:-all statements are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-Which of the following defect is not detected by Dye penetrant test

        A:-Nonmetallic inclusions



        D:-Forging defects

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question64:-Which of the following instrument is appropriate for inspection during

mass production of identical cylindrical specimens with ±0.5mm

        A:-Vernier calipers


        C:-GO and NO-GO gauges

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question65:-Which is preferred for welding Aluminium sheets?

        A:-Carbon Arc Welding

        B:-Oxy-Acetylene Gas welding

        C:-TIG welding

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-What happens to the permeability of moulding sand as the asnd grain

size increases?



        C:-Remains same

        D:-Depends on type of sand

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-In case of simple turning operation in a Lathe, for the same spindle

speed, if the diameter of workpiece is increased, how will the cutting speed vary?



        C:-Will not change

        D:-Varies depending on tool material

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question68:-Continuous chips with BUE are formed during the machining of

        A:-Brittle material at low cutting speed

        B:-Ductile material at low cutting speed

        C:-Brittle material at high cutting speed

        D:-Ductile material at high cutting speed

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-Process of changing the shape of grinding wheels when it becomes

worn from original shape due to breaking away of abrasive is called





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question70:-In which of the following milling method, the cutter rotates in the

direction opposite to the direction in which work is fed

        A:-Up Milling

        B:-Climb Milling

        C:-Down milling

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question71:-A pitot-static tube, with a coefficient of 0.98 is used to measure the

velocity of water in a pipe. The stagnation pressure head is 6 m and static pressure

head is 5 m. What is the velocity of flow?

        A:-5.32 m/s

        B:-3.14 m/s

        C:-2.14 m/s

        D:-4.34 m/s

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question72:-Euler equation for water turbine is derived on the basis of

        A:-Rate of change of angular momentum

        B:-Rate of change of linear momentum

        C:-Conservation of mass

        D:-Rate of change of velocity

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question73:-Stream lines, streak lines and path lines are identical for a

        A:-Steady flow

        B:-Unsteady flow

        C:-Incompressible flow

        D:-Never identical

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question74:-The material acceleration is always zero for a/an

        A:-Steady and uniform flow

        B:-Steady and non-uniform flow

        C:-Unsteady and uniform flow

        D:-Unsteady and non-uniform flow

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question75:-The separation of the boundary layer takes place when the pressure

gradient is





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question76:-When an air vessel is fitted to a single acting reciprocating pump the

% of saving in work done against friction is





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-Two pumps can operate independently at heads and discharges

 respectively. If the pumps are connected in parallel, then what are the resulting

discharge (Q) and head (H)





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question78:-The overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump when head is 25 m,

discharge is 0.004 /s and output power P is 16 kW(g = 10 m/ , kg/ )





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question79:-Match List-I (Turbine) with List-II (Specific speeds) and select the

correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List-I                                      List-II

A.    Francis                              1.    10-35

B.    Kaplan                              2.    35-60

C.    Pelton (one jet)                 3.     60-300

D.    Pelton (two jets)                4. 300-1000

        A:-A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

        B:-A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

        C:-A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

        D:-A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question80:-For maximum efficiency of a series of curved vanes, the vane speed is

        A:-Quarter of the jet speed

        B:-One third of the jet speed

        C:-Equal to jet speed

        D:-Half of the jet speed

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question81:-The centroid of an equilateral triangle is located at

        A:-One-third the distance from each vertex along each median

        B:-Two-third the distance from each vertex along each median

        C:-Half the distance from each vertex along each median

        D:-Various distance from each vertex along the median

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-A steel cylindrical closed container having inner diameter D and wall

thickness t, where D > 20t, is holding gas at pressure P. If the container is

positioned horizontally, the hoop stress experienced by the cylinder could be

        A:-2 P/t

        B:-4 P/t



        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-Which among the following screw thread profile is suggested in higher

axial load applications

        A:-Acme thread

        B:-Buttress thread

        C:-Square thread


        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-A design engineer designated a fit as 25H6k7, to mount a gear on a

shaft. What kind of fit is it?

        A:-Clearance fit

        B:-Interference fit

        C:-Transition fit

        D:-Data insufficient

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-An orthopedic implant pin of titanium alloy having length 50 mm and

diameter 20±0.02 mm is to be plated with nickel with coating thickness 50±5μm.

What would be the dimension of the GO ring gauge to check the diameter of the

plated pin, if gauge tolerance is neglected?

        A:-20.075 mm

        B:-20.130 mm

        C:-20.020 mm

        D:-20.070 mm

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-'A screw advances linearly when the screw is rotated inside a

stationary nut'. How many degrees of freedom for such a screw joint?




        D:-cannot be defined

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question87:-Stress-strain curve of a material is observed to be linear throughout

the strain limit. The material could be


        B:-Mild steel


        D:-Any of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question88:-A surface roughness profile of a turned surface is appeared to be a

triangular profile having base b and height h, as shown below. The CLA roughness

value for the given profile would be






        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-Pick the odd-one-out from the given power transmission drives:

        A:-Gear drive

        B:-Belt drive

        C:-Chain drive

        D:-Clutch drive

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-Which among the given metal joining terminology is commonly used,

when two pieces of metal are joined by melting its edges and adding a filler

material, if necessary?

        A:-Ultrasonic welding

        B:-Friction welding

        C:-Resistance welding

        D:-Fusion welding

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question91:-For a heat exchanger, Δ is the maximum temperature difference

and Δ is the minimum temperature difference between the two fluids. LMTD is

the log mean temperature difference. and are the minimum and the

maximum heat capacity rates. The maximum possible heat transfer between the

two fluids is

        A:- LMTD

        B:- LMTD

        C:- Δ

        D:- Δ

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-A hollow cylinder has length L, inner radius r1, outer radius r2, and

thermal conductivity k. The thermal resistance of the cylinder for radial conduction





        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-The ratio of momentum diffusivity (v) to thermal diffusivity ( ) is called

        A:-Prandtl number

        B:-Reynolds number

        C:-Grashoff number

        D:-Nusselt number

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-For a glass plate transitivity and reflectivity are specified as 0.85 and

0.09 respectively, the absorptivity of the glass plate is





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question95:-Before entering the expansion or the throttle valve, a refrigerant's

condition in any vapor compression system is

        A:-Dry vapor

        B:-High pressure saturated liquid

        C:-Low pressure saturated liquid

        D:-High pressure vapor

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-Which of the following process is used in winter air conditioning?

        A:-Heating and Humidification

        B:-Cooling and Dehumidification


        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question97:-The highest temperature of a refrigerant in a refrigeration system

operating on a reversed

Carnot cycle is 27°C and the lower temperature is -23°C. The coefficient of






        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question98:-The theoretically correct air-fuel ratio for petrol engine is approximately





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question99:-The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is of the order of





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Diesel Engine fuels are rated by

        A:-Cetane number

        B:-Octane number


        D:-CFR number

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Check These also

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25 January 2024

[Solved paper]Deputy Manager (Production) Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Deputy Manager Kerala PSC Question paper 406/2022

 Deputy Manager (Production) Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Deputy Manager Kerala PSC Question paper 406/2022

Deputy Manager Travancore Sugars and Chemicals Ltd

Deputy Manager Travancore Sugars and Chemicals Ltd

Question Paper Code: 161/2023/OL

Category Code: 406/2022

Exam: Deputy Manager (Production)

Date of Test 13-11-2023

Department : Travancore Sugars and Chemicals Ltd

Deputy Manager Kerala PSC Question paper 406/2022

Question1:-Purging is done

        A:-To recover heat

        B:-To avoid accumulation of inert

        C:-To increase the yield

        D:-To control the concentration accurately

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question2:-Molality of a 20% NaOH solution is

        A:-20 M

        B:-6.25 M

        C:-0.00625 M

        D:-2 M

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-Clapeyron equation relates

        A:-Vapour pressure with temperature

        B:-Vapour pressure with concentration

        C:-Vapour pressure with density

        D:-Vapour pressure with compressibility factor

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question4:-When two immiscible liquids are mixed, the boiling point of resulting


        A:-Is greater than the boiling point of both pure liquids

        B:-Is less than the boiling point of more volatile liquid

        C:-Lies between the boiling point of the pure liquids

        D:-May be less than or greater than the boiling point of low volatile liquid

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question5:-Fugacity and pressure are numerically equal when the gas is

        A:-At high pressure

        B:-At standard state

        C:-Ideal state

        D:-Low pressure

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-Entropy of perfect crystalline substance at absolute zero is




        D:-Can't say

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question7:-Heat capacity of a gas is given by where is in kJ/kmol K

and T in K. Dimensions of constant a and b respectively are


        B:-kJ/kmolK, kJ/kmol

        C:-kJ/kmolK, kJ/kmolK

        D:-kJ/kmol , kJ/kmol

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question8:-Gross heating value of a fuel is obtained when water formed during

combustion is

        A:-In the vapour state

        B:-In the liquid state

        C:-In the vapour state or liquid state


        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called

        A:-Triple point

        B:-Saturation point

        C:-Critical point

        D:-Freezing point

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question10:-Seeds containing 30% oil and rest inerts is extracted with hexane. The

underflow analysed 10% oil and 20% hexane. The percent recovery of oil is





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-The dimensions of kinematic viscosity is





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question12:-Loss due to sudden contraction is proportional to

        A:-Velocity head




        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question13:-In laminar flow through a pipe, if the diameter of the pipe is reduced to

half, for a constant volumetric flow rate, pressure drop across the pipe

        A:-Increases two times

        B:-Decreases two times

        C:-Decreases 16 times

        D:-Increases 16 times

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-In Venturimeter pressure loss is

        A:-more than orifice meter

        B:-less than orifice meter

        C:-same as orifice meter

        D:-can't say

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question15:-Cavitation in a centrifugal pump can be prevented by

        A:-maintaining suction head equal to developed head

        B:-maintaining suction head lower than the vapour pressure

        C:-maintaining suction head sufficiently greater than the vapour pressure

        D:-by proper sizing of suction line

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question16:-Priming is required for

        A:-Centrifugal pump

        B:-Plunger pump

        C:-Piston pumps

        D:-All pumps

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question17:-Hydraulic radius for a circular pipe of diameter D is given by





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-Drag is the force exerted by the

        A:-Solid on the fluid in the opposite direction of flow

        B:-Fluid on the solid in the opposite direction of flow

        C:-Fluid on the solid in the direction of flow

        D:-Solid on the fluid in the direction of flow

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question19:-Viscosity increases with stress over time for

        A:-Thixotropic fluid

        B:-Rheopectic fluid

        C:-Bingham plastic

        D:-Newtonian fluid

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question20:-Pressure drop across the fluidized bed with increase in expansion of

the bed



        C:-First increases and then decreases

        D:-Remains constant

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-In a Tylor standard screen series, the ratio of the area of the openings

in any screen to that of the next smaller screen is





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-Crushing of sticky clay is done by

        A:-Ball mill

        B:-Jaw crusher

        C:-Hammer mills

        D:-Fluid energy mill

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question23:-For marine impeller, the flow number may be considered constant and

equal to





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-The McCabe Δ L Law states that the

        A:-The linear crystal growth rate does not depends on the crystal size

        B:-The linear crystal growth rate depends on the crystal size

        C:-Theoretical growth rate proportional to area

        D:-Imperfections in the crystal size

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question25:-In a rotary drum filter, the filtration rate

        A:-Remains unaffected with change in drum speed

        B:-Increases with increases in speed

        C:-Decreases with increase in drum speed

        D:-Increases linearly with increase in drum speed

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question26:-A cyclone separator collection efficiency is a function of

        A:-Particle size distribution of the feed

        B:-Average particle size

        C:-Increased centrifugal action

        D:-Decreased centrifugal action

        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question27:-Mass flow bins has the characteristics of

        A:-Density can vary

        B:-Product can remain in dead zones until complete cleanout of the system

        C:-Flow is erratic

        D:-Flow is uniform

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-Used to enlarge the storage bin opening and cause flow by breaking

up material bridges are known as


        B:-Belt feeders

        C:-Apron feeders

        D:-Vibrating hoppers

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-As the distance between the heat source and the object receiving the

heat increases, the rate of heat transfer by radiation


        B:-Increases linearly


        D:-Remains constant

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question30:-Calculate the rate of heat transfer per unit area through a copper plate

45 mm thick whose one face is maintained at 350°C and the other face at 50°C.

Take thermal conductivity of copper as 370 W/m°C.

        A:-0.455 MW/

        B:-0.566 MW/

        C:-2.466 MW/

        D:-3.466 MW/

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question31:-The colburn j factor for heat transfer is defined as





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question32:-Peclet number is defined as

        A:-Ratio between rate of heat transfer by convection to rate of heat transfer by

bulk flow

        B:-Ratio between rate of heat transfer by bulk flow to rate of heat transfer by


        C:-Ratio between rate of heat transfer by bulk flow to rate of heat transfer by


        D:-Ratio between momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question33:-For the nucleate boiling on a vertical flat plate, Jacob correlation is

given as





        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question34:-Film wise condensation

        A:-is characterized by a thin liquid film forming over the entire surface

        B:-is less common than drop wise condensation

        C:-occurs on non wettable surfaces

        D:-is charaterized by high heat transfer coefficients than that for drop wise


        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question35:-Assuming the sun to be a black body emitting radiation with maximum

intensity at   , what is the surface temperature of the sun?





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question36:-A cold fluid is heated from 40°C to 130°C by steam at 150°C. The

LMTD in parallel flow is

        A:-Lower than the LMTD in counter flow

        B:-Greater than the LMTD in counter flow

        C:-Equal to the LMTD in counter flow


        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question37:-The tube side heat transfer coefficient just at the entrance of tube is




        D:-same as the average value of heat transfer coefficient for tube side

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question38:-The steam economy of an evaporator is defined as

        A:-the number of kilograms of steam consumed per hour

        B:-the number of kilograms of steam consumed per kilogram of solvent


        C:-the number of kilograms of solvent vapourized per hour

        D:-the number of kilograms of solvent vaporized per kilogram of steam fed to

the evaporator

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-The rate of diffusion in gases is about





        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question40:-Which one of the following is not associated with absorption columns?





        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-A plot of partial pressure of the absorbed gas against temperature at

various constant volume is known as


        B:-Adsorption isobar

        C:-Adsorption isostere

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question42:-Pick out the correct statement:

        A:-Fenske equation is used to calculate the minimum reflux ratio in distillation

        B:-Fenske equation is used to calculate the optimum reflux ratioin distillation

        C:-Fenske equation is used to calculate the minimum number of plates for

constant relative volatility

        D:-Fenske equation is used to calculate the minimum number of plates for

multi component distillation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question43:-When the Lewis number is equal to 1

        A:-Humid heat is almost equal to the specific heat

        B:-Concentration boundary layer is present above the thermal boundary layer

        C:-Psychrometric line is present above that of the adiabatic saturation line

        D:-Psychromatic line is present below the adiabatic saturation line

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question44:-In Liquid-Liquid extractors, the interface is set in an open section

        A:-at the middle of the extractor

        B:-at the top or bottom of the extractor

        C:-at the inlet of dispersed phase

        D:-at the inlet of the continuous phase

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question45:-Removal of one element from a solid alloy is known as

        A:-Selective leaching




        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question46:-Which of the following terminology correspond to Freeze drying?


        B:-Salt solution

        C:-Short drying time

        D:-Operates at high pressure

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-The point where the falling rate drying curve intercepts the x-axis

corresponds to

        A:-Unbound moisture

        B:-Equilibrium moisture

        C:-Free moisture

        D:-Critical moisture

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question48:-In a McCabe-Thiele diagram of a binary distillation, the q-line for a feed

of Saturated Vapour

        A:-will be a vertical line

        B:-will be a horizontal line

        C:-have slope infinity

        D:-have slope positive

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question49:-Volume of the reactor corresponding to 100% conversion is

        A:-100 litres

        B:-50 litres

        C:-10 litres


        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question50:-For the reactions requiring large residence time, which one of the

following reactors is perferred?

        A:-Continuous Stirred Reactor (CSTR)

        B:-Plug Flow Reactors (PFR)

        C:-Tubular reactors

        D:-Combinations of CSTR and PFR

        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question51:-Example for solid-solid reaction





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-Pick out the wrong statement from the following:

        A:-Batch reactors operates under steady state

        B:-Batch reactors have back mixing

        C:-Batch reactors operates under unsteady state

        D:-Batch reactors are used in pharmaceutical industries

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question53:-In a plug flow reactor, under what condition, ideal plug flow will be


        A:-Reynolds number = 2100

        B:-Reynolds number < 2100

        C:-Reynolds number infinity

        D:-Reynolds number zero

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question54:- in Michaelis-Menten equation is

        A:-Bimolecular association rate constant of enzyme-substrate binding

        B:-Substrate concentration at which the reaction velocity is half of the

maximum reaction velocity

        C:-Unimolecular rate constant of the enzyme-substrate complex dissociating

to enzyme and substrate

        D:-Unimolecular rate constant of the enzyme-substrate complex dissociating

to enzyme and product

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-When , the ratio of





        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question56:-If the residence time obtained for a reactor by the RTD experiment is

less than that expected, it indicates

        A:-Combination of PFR and CSTR



        D:-Presence of dead volume

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question57:-One parameter in non-ideal PFR is

        A:-Number of ideal tanks

        B:-Dispersion co-efficient

        C:-Residence time

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question58:-For tanks in series model, the spread of the trace curve is to

        A:-Cube of the distance from the tracer origin

        B:-Square of the distance from the tracer origin

        C:-1/square of the distance from the tractor origin

        D:-Square root of the distance from the tracer origin

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question59:-Introduction of an integral action in the forward path of a unity

feedback system results in a

        A:-marginally stable system

        B:-system with no steady state error

        C:-system with reduced noise immunity

        D:-system with better speed of response

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-Identify the correct statement from the following:

        A:-Absolute humidity is expressed in percentage

        B:-Warm air possesses less water vapor than cold air

        C:-The higher the amount of water vapour, the higher the absolute humidity

        D:-Saturated air has an absolute humidity of 100%

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question61:-In measurement systems, which of the following are undesirable static


        A:-Drift, static error and dead zone

        B:-Reproducibility and non-linearity

        C:-Sensitivity and accuracy

        D:-Drift, Static error, dead zone and non-linearity

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-The primary controller in a cascade control system must always be


        A:-faster than the secondary

        B:-using the Ziegler-Nichols method

        C:-with greater filtering than the secondary

        D:-after the secondary is tuned

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question63:-What is the relation between bar and psi?

        A:-1 bar = 1 psi

        B:-1 bar = 201 psi

        C:-1 bar = 20 psi

        D:-1 bar = 14.5 psi

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question64:-Phase lag of the frequency response of a second order system to a

sinusoidal forcing function

        A:-approaches 180° asymptotically

        B:-is 120°

        C:-is 30°

        D:-is 90°

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-Which of the following is not an advantage of laminar flow burner used

in flame photometry?

        A:-Stable flame for analysis


        C:-Sample containing two or more solvents can be burned efficiently

        D:-Efficient atomization of sample

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question66:-The temperature of tempering oil baths maintained at 400°C during

heat treatment of steel is measured by a/an ___________ thermocouple.




        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-Cavitation in a control valve is caused by

        A:-a laminar flow regime

        B:-vibration in the packing

        C:-the Von Karman effect

        D:-pressure recovery

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-In a feed-back control system G and H denote open loop and close

loop transfer functions respectively. The output-input relationship is

        A:-H / (1 + G)

        B:-G / (1 + H)

        C:-G / H

        D:-H / G

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question69:-Aerobic process of water treatment

        A:-produces more sludge than anaerobic process

        B:-produces less sludge than anaerobic process

        C:-produces same amount of sludge as anaerobic process

        D:-produces no sludge

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-The power development by a hydro plant is directly proportional to

        A:-head of dam

        B:-discharge of water

        C:-product of discharge and head of water

        D:-none of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question71:-Which type of fire extinguisher must not be used in case of electrical

base fire?

        A:-Halon extinguisher

        B:-Carbon chloride extinguisher

        C:-Foam extinguisher

        D:-Dry power extinguisher

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question72:-Match the following:

                List I                           List II

a.     R.D.X.                   i.     Cyclotetramethylene tetranitraamine

b.     P.E.T.N.                 ii.     2, 4, 6 Trinitrotoluene

c.     H.M.X.                  iii.     Pentaerythritol teranitrate

d.    T.N.T.                    iv.     Cyclotrimethlene trinitra amine

a     b      c      d

        A:-i      ii     iii     iv

        B:-ii      iii     iv     i

        C:-iv      i     ii     iii

        D:-iv      iii     i     ii

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents:

        A:-Presence of free oxygen for the aerobic decomposition

        B:-high biodegradability of the pollutant

        C:-presence of toxic material in the pollutant

        D:-low biodegradability of the pollutant

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question74:-By using combined cycle steam and gas power plant

        A:-specific fuel consumption can be decreased

        B:-efficiency increased

        C:-Specific fuel consumption can be decreased and efficiency increased

        D:-None of the mentioned above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-In fault tree analysis, event symbols describe the events that lead to

        A:-Subsystem level failure

        B:-Parts level failure

        C:-System level failure

        D:-Component level failure

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question76:-The plume behavior which occurs in the super adiabatic condition with

light to moderate wind speed in the presence of large-scale thermal eddies are

known as

        A:-Coning Plume

        B:-Looping Plume

        C:-Neutral Plume

        D:-Fanning Plume

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question77:-The operating temperature of a central receiver power tower of solar

plant is

        A:-100°C - 200°C

        B:-5000°C - 10000°C

        C:-1000°C - 5000°C

        D:-500°C - 1000°C

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-If you bypass an emergency shutdown (ESD) function for preventive

maintenance but have not properly defined mitigations, you have

        A:-Weakened the hardware barrier

        B:-Removed a hardware barrier

        C:-Removed a human barrier

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-At point where dissolved oxygen is minimum

        A:-Rate of reaeration equals rate of deoxygenation

        B:-Rate of reaeration exceeds rate of deoxygenation

        C:-Rate of deoxygenation exceeds rate of reaertion

        D:-Rate of reaeration equals two times rate of deoxygenation

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question80:-What is downwind turbine?

        A:-Rotor is positioned at the three-quarters of the height of the tower

        B:-Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit

        C:-Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower

        D:-Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question81:-The type of polymerisation involved in the formation of Nylon-6 is

        A:-Ring opening polymerisation

        B:-Condensation Polymerisation

        C:-Addition Polymerisation

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question82:-Mostly Sulphuric Acid is manufactured by

        A:-Girbatol process

        B:-Frasch process

        C:-Electric process

        D:-Double contact double absorption process

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question83:-Undesirable side reaction occured during the manufacture of Urea is

        A:-Formation of

        B:-Formation of

        C:-Formation of

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question84:-Strength of sugar solutions are expressed in





        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question85:-In petroleum refinery operations, __________ process is used for

converting paraffins and naphthenes to aromatics.



        C:-Catalytic reforming


        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-Select the correct combination that correctly matches the process in

group 1 with the entries in group 2:

                      Group 1                                       Group 2

P.     Electric Process                          I.     Pulp production

Q.    Sulphite Process                       II.     Phosphorus production

R.    Solvay Process                          III.    Sulpher Mining

S.    Frasch Process                          IV.     Soda ash

        A:-P - III, Q - IV, R - II, S - I

        B:-P - IV, Q - II, R - III, S - I

        C:-P - II, Q - I, R - IV, S - III

        D:-P - I, Q - IV, R - III, S - II

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question87:-Polyvinyl chloride is prepared by

        A:-Addition type kinetics

        B:-Condensation polymerisation

        C:-Reacting hydrochloric acid with polyethylene

        D:-Reacting chlorine with polyethylene

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question88:-Catalitic cracking is a

        A:-Hydrogen addition process

        B:-Breaking down of higher molecular weight componds to lower molecular

weight compounds with endothermic reaction

        C:-Breaking down of higher molecular weight componds to lower molecular

weight compounds with exothermic reaction

        D:-A coking process

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-Tripple superphosphate is prepared by the reaction of

        A:-Phosphate rock with sulphuric acid

        B:-Phosphate rock with phosphoric acid

        C:-Phosphate rock with sulpher

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-In India which one of the industries produce elemental sulpher as a by


        A:-Petroleum refineries

        B:-Paper and pulp industries

        C:-Coal mining plants

        D:-Sulphuric acid plants

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question91:-If the interest rate is 12% and the compounding is done at the end of

every two months, the effective rate of return will be





        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question92:-Allocation of depreciation is uniform in

        A:-Straight line method

        B:-Sinking fund method

        C:-Declining balance method

        D:-Units of producing method

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question93:-Quick ratio is defined as

        A:-Liquid Assets / Current liabilities

        B:-Current Assets / Current liabilities

        C:-Working Assets / Current assets

        D:-Liquid Assets / Total investment

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-At discounted cashflow rate of return

        A:-Net Present Value = 0

        B:-Net Present Value > 0

        C:-Net Present Value < 0

        D:-Can't Predict

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question95:-If the investment at zero time is 10 lakhs and annual cash flow is Rs.

2,50,000, the payback period will be

        A:-2 years

        B:-2.5 years

        C:-4 years

        D:-3 years

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question96:-At break even point

        A:-Cash flow is zero

        B:-Sales venue is zero

        C:-Total cost is zero

        D:-Gross Profit is zero

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question97:-If the cost of a 100 MT chemical plant is 50 lakhs in the year 2005,

what is the cost of a 200 MT plant in the year 2010? Assume that the cost index in

2005 and 2010 were 450 and 540 respectively.

        A:-90 lakhs

        B:-120 lakhs

        C:-60 lakhs

        D:-100 lakhs

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question98:-Which of the following is not correct?

        A:-CPM uses deterministic model

        B:-PERT uses probabilistic model

        C:-CPM is used for projects that require research and development

        D:-PERT is an event oriented technique

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question99:-Which one of the following is not a current asset?

        A:-Cash in hand


        C:-Sundry debtors

        D:-Bills receivable

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-Which one of the following is correct?

        A:-Creditor is a person who owes money to the business

        B:-Sundry debtor is a liability

        C:-Closing stock will not appear in trial balance

        D:-Secured loan is not a liability

        Correct Answer:- Option-C


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21 January 2024

Child Development Questions and Answers|ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

 Child Development Questions and Answers|ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

Child Development Questions & Answers

1. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Human infants are born with a culture.

(b) Human infants come into the world ready to learn a culture but are not born with one. Human infant are not born with culture but enter the world ready to learn culture.

(c) Socialisation and acculturation are synonymous.

(d) (b) and (c) are true.

2. The general process of acquiring culture

is referred to as _____________.

(a) socialisation

(b) acculturation

(c) internalisation

(d) None of the above

3. Socialisation helps us to learn

(a) the role we have to play in future.

(b) the culture’s norms.

(c) the language.

(d) All of the above

4. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) Socialisation plays no part in personality formation in individuals.

(b) Heteronormous societies follow some shared norms.

(c) Successful socialisation can result in uniformity within a society.

(d) (b) and (c) are true.

5. Ram is not socialised like the other members of his society. He will be

known as being ________________.

(a) mentally ill

(b) deviant

(c) abnormal or odd

(d) All of the above

6. Socialisation begins

(a) at the time when an individual is conceived.

(b) at birth or shortly after that.

(c) at the stage of nursery school.

(d) when children reach puberty and are able to understand the reasons for society’s rules.

7. Which of the following is true of socialisation?

(a) Early childhood is the most significant time of socialisation.

(b) Socialisation stops on attaining adulthood as we would then have learnt our culture.

(c) All cultures use the same techniques to socialise their children.

(d) Socialisation can only be done through education.

8. Who is mostly involved directly in the socialisation of children around the world?

(a) Adult men 20–40 years of age

(b) Grandparents

(c) Women and girls

(d) Teachers

9. The influence of the family as a social agent is eventually replaced by _____________.

(a) professionals

(b) neighbours

(c) peer groups

(d) None of the above

10. Where does the agent of socialisation conduct activities?

(a) Communities (b) Peer groups

(c) Categories (d) Media

11. According to Jean Piaget, at what stage do children develop the ability to use symbols?

(a) Formal operational

(b) Concrete operational

(c) Pre-operational

(d) Sensorimotor

12. According to this chapter, socialisation is significant because ______________.

(a) it ensures that we are bound by

the rules of society

(b) it allows us to overcome our innate biological instincts

(c) it facilitates the learning of male and female roles in society

(d) it shapes our identity and self

13. Piaget’s stages of development can be modified by

(a) experiences a child has in society.

(b) psychoanalysis.

(c) factors associated with biology.

(d) the influence of the mass media.

14. Mohit talks a lot at school but not at home. This may be because

(a) the teacher pressures the learner.

(b) the school provides space to talk a lot.

(c) Mohit is not happy at home.

(d) his ideas are valued at school.

15. Om Prakash, a teacher of class 10, involves his students in various group

activities. This process will facilitate the student’s learning and also help in

(a) socialisation.

(b) value education.

(c) aggression.

(d) individualisation.

16. Raman is an economically deprived child in your class and he is generally

not seen to be very active. What will you do to make him participate

in all activities that take place in class?

(a) You will show examples of other learners who are doing well and

assure Raman that he can also do well if he makes an effort.

(b) You will insist that he has to participate since you have high expectations

of him.

(c) You will show faith in his ability and capacity.

(d) You will scold him for his non-participatory


17. What is the meaning of socialisation

with reference to education?

(a) Rejecting social norms

(b) Adaptation and adjustment with

social environment

(c) Simply following social norms

(d) Developing social norms

18. Learners should be encouraged to

interact with peers so that

(a) the course can be completed early.

(b) the teacher can control the class.

(c) learners acquire cooperative

learning and social skills.

(d) learners can get to know each


19. School textbooks socialise you through

(a) content.

(b) exercises.

(c) examples.

(d) All of the above

20. Ramit is a teacher of class 6 and always

wants his students should come to

class regularly on time and do their

work properly. Ramit should

(a) model his behaviour on the same lines as what he is expecting from his learners.

(b) scold learners for inappropriate work.

(c) punish learners for late coming.

(d) complain to the principal about his student’s behaviour.

Read Also:

 Principles of Development-ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

Types of Development ICDS Supervisor Exam-Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions

Child Development ICDS Supervisor Exam - Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions

Malaria |ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

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ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers

Common Health Problems in India & Different Levels of Health care in India

1. Meal Planning for the Infant

2. Spplementary foods for Infants

3. Importance of Breast Milk

4. How to Feed Infant? Meal Plan for Infants

5. Meal Planning for the Prechoolers

Topic wise Notes for ICDS Supervisor Exam


1.      Home Science

2.      Food and Nutrition

3.      Psychology

4.       Physiology

5.       Microbiology

6.       Sociology 

7.      Nutrition and Health 


MCQ Questions & Answers for ICDS Supervisor


1.      ICDS Supervisor NOTES

2.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (1-20)

3.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (21-30)

4.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ-1

5.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 1

6.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 2

7.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 3

8.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 4


10.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 2

11.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 3

12.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 4

13.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

14.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 2

15.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 3

16.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 4

17.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 5


19.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 7

20.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 8

21.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

22.  Elementary Care & Education MCQ

23.  Solved Previous Question Paper ICDS Supervisor

24.  Women & Child ICDS Supervisor Exam

25.  Extension Education Notes for ICDS Supervisor

26.  Complete NOTES Child Psychology



Nutrition Notes


5 Food Groups

Nutrition MCQ 1

Nutrition MCQ 2


More Topic wise Notes can be got from the Website https://www.previousquestions.in


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Click the Below topic Links to get The notes


ഗസ്റ്റാള്‍ട്ടിസം Gestaltism Learning methods

ജ്ഞാതൃവ്യവഹാരവാദം ( Cognitive behaviorism)

മാനവികതാവാദം (Humanism)

ജ്ഞാതൃവാദം (Cognitivism)

നാഡീമന:ശാസ്ത്രം (neuropsychology)|പഠനത്തെ സ്വാധീനിക്കുന്ന ഘടകങ്ങള്‍

കോള്‍ബര്‍ഗിന്റെ സന്മാര്‍ഗവികാസഘട്ടങ്ങള്‍

വ്യക്തിത്വം Personality

ഉള്‍പ്പെടുത്തിയുളള വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം Inclusive education

PART 2 ഉള്‍പ്പെടുത്തിയുളള വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം  Inclusive education

ദിനാചരണങ്ങള്‍ Important dates based on themes

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Child Psychology Notes

Anganwadi Worker Notes

 Pedagogy  Malayalam Notes

LPSA Study Notes

KTET Notes

UPSA Study Notes

Complete NOTES Child Psychology