[Solved paper]Livestock Inspector Gr II/ Poultry Assistant/ Milk Recorder Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Kerala PSC Question paper  171/2023/OL  Category  Code:  535/2019

FINAL ANSWER KEY Livestock Inspector Gr II/ Poultry Assistant/ Milk Recorder Kerala PSC

Question Paper Code: 171/2023/OL

Category Code: 535/2019

Exam: Livestock Inspector Gr II/ Poultry Assistant/ Milk Recorder etc (Supplimentary Examination)

Date of Test 21-12-2023 

Department Animal Husbandry

Question1:-Choose the odd one

        A:-Black quarter

        B:-Brucellosis

        C:-Anthrax

        D:-Mastitis

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question2:-The floor space required for grower light breeds of poultry is

        A:-1350

        B:-950

        C:-850

        D:-1950

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-Name the type of dairy farming mainly practiced in villages

        A:-Family cow

        B:-Part time dairying

        C:-Diversified farms

        D:-Mixed farms

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question4:-Ear notching is a method of identification done in

        A:-Cattle

        B:-Goat

        C:-Pig

        D:-Buffalo

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question5:-The total livestock population in rural areas of India is

        A:-514.11 million

        B:-536.76 million

        C:-303.6 million

        D:-193.46 million

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question6:-The fine undercoat of Kashmiri goats is called

        A:-Fur

        B:-Wool

        C:-Mohair

        D:-Pashmina

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question7:-A bull whose genetic capacity is proved through sire index is called

        A:-Heterosis

        B:-Hybrid vigour

        C:-Cross bred

        D:-Proven bull

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-As per 2019 basic Animal Husbandry Statistics, the average milk yield

per day per animal for crossbred cattle in India is

        A:-15 kg

        B:-10 kg

        C:-7.95 kg

        D:-3 kg

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question9:-Super ovulation is an important step related to cattle in

        A:-MOET

        B:-Artificial insemination

        C:-Estrous cycle

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question10:-An adult uncastrated male cattle is called

        A:-Steer

        B:-Bull

        C:-Uncastrated bull

        D:-Bullock

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question11:-Which bone is called shoulder blade?

        A:-Humerus

        B:-Radius

        C:-Scapula

        D:-Pelvic bone

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-A part of the digestive system of cattle which extends from the

diaphragm to the pelvis filling almost left side of the abdominal cavity

        A:-Large intestine

        B:-Small intestine

        C:-Rumen

        D:-Reticulum

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-An example for dual purpose breed of cattle

        A:-Kankrej

        B:-Hallikar

        C:-Amrithmahal

        D:-Kangayam

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question14:-The body cavity which is bounded by the vertebral column at the

dorsal side, ribs on the lateral side, sternum on the ventral side, diaphragm on the

posterior side

        A:-Abdominal cavity

        B:-Pelvic cavity

        C:-Thoracic cavity

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-Disease most commonly occurs in goat as a result of consuming large

quantity of readily digestable carbohydrate is

        A:-Ketosis

        B:-Lactic acidosis

        C:-Milk fever

        D:-PPR

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-The hormone which helps in parturition, sperm and egg transportation,

milk ejection

        A:-GnRH

        B:-FSH

        C:-Prolactin

        D:-Oxytocin

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-The largest nematode of poultry is

        A:-Ascaridia

        B:-Heterakis

        C:-Taenia

        D:-Whip worms

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-In poultry layers moulting occurs once in a year and the order of it is

(i) Head-neck-body-wing-tail

(ii) Head-wing-body-neck-tail

(iii) Tail-wing-body-neck-head

(iv) Head-body-neck-tail-wing

        A:-(iii)

        B:-(iv)

        C:-(ii)

        D:-(i)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question19:-Most reliable test used for detecting adulteration of milk with water is

        A:-Iodine test

        B:-Seliwanoff's reagent

        C:-Freezing point

        D:-Con. HCl

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question20:-Which among the following statements is correct about dystocia

(i) May occur if the posture of calf is abnormal

(ii) May occur if relaxation of pelvic ligament is insufficient

        A:-(i)

        B:-(i) and (ii)

        C:-(ii)

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-Which method of selection is used for selection of calves?

        A:-Family selection

        B:-Progeny selection

        C:-Pedigree selection

        D:-Individual method

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question22:-Roughages should contain

        A:-more than 18% crude fibre

        B:-less than 18% crude fibre

        C:-16% crude fibre

        D:-18% crude protein

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question23:-Name the breed which is having a straight top line, usual colour is

fawn, double dished forehead, horns are small and curved forwards

        A:-Sahiwal

        B:-Brown swiss

        C:-Gir

        D:-Jersey

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question24:-Longest phase of estrous cycle in cattle is

        A:-Pro estrous

        B:-Di estrous

        C:-Estrous

        D:-Met estrous

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-An example for legume fodder tree is

        A:-Jack fruit

        B:-Coconut tree

        C:-Subabul

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-Concentrate mixture for an adult goat should contain ________% of

crude protein.

        A:-16%

        B:-18%

        C:-20%

        D:-14%

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question27:-The temperature time combination used for continuous flow method of

pasteurization is

        A:-63°C, 30 minutes

        B:-89°C, 3 seconds

        C:-60°C, 25 minutes

        D:-72°C, 15 seconds

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question28:-The unpaired airsac seen in poultry

        A:-Inter clavicular

        B:-Thoracic

        C:-Cervical

        D:-Abdominal

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question29:-Cyanosis and edema of comb and wattle, blood tinged oral and nasal

discharges, in severe cases greenish diarrhoea may be seen in poultry. This may be

due to the disease

        A:-Pasteurellosis

        B:-Avian influenza

        C:-IBD

        D:-Newcastle Disease

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-The peculiarity of protein digestion in ruminants is

(i) Rumen microbes can synthesise essential amino acids

(ii) Microbial protein produced by microbes are of high quality protein

        A:-(i)

        B:-(ii)

        C:-Both (i) and (ii)

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question31:-A ration which contains concentrate, roughage, minerals and vitamins

in correct proportion to meet production and maintenance requirement of an

animal is

        A:-TMR Feed

        B:-By pass protein

        C:-Ration

        D:-Diet

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question32:-Duration of estrum in cattle is

        A:-18 days

        B:-24 days

        C:-2-3 days

        D:-12-24 hours

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question33:-The most popular mediterranean breed of poultry is

        A:-Leghorn

        B:-RIR

        C:-Cochin

        D:-Australorp

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question34:-DCP content of paddy straw is

        A:-40

        B:-20

        C:-0

        D:-4

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-Approximate floor space required for a cow under intensive system of

rearing

        A:-1.5 - 1.7  

        B:-1 - 1.2

        C:-3.5

        D:-75

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question36:-Portion of the reproductive system of cow which opens only during

heat and parturition is

        A:-Cervix

        B:-Body of uterus

        C:-Uterine horns

        D:-Oviduct

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question37:-The process through which the milk is made to a stable emulsion of

milk fat and milk serum

        A:-Toned milk

        B:-Condensed milk

        C:-Pasteurised milk

        D:-Homogenised milk

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question38:-If a layer is having an abdomen which is large with width of 3-5

fingers, soft and less fat, it indicates that it is a

        A:-Poor layer

        B:-Good layer

        C:-Broody hen

        D:-Unproductive hen

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question39:-As per the vaccination schedule for layers, the vaccine that is

administered to chicken on week is against

        A:-Marek's disease

        B:-Ranikhet disease

        C:-IBD

        D:-Fowl pox

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question40:-The standard dry period in cow is

        A:-365 days

        B:-60 days

        C:-120 days

        D:-30 - 90 days

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question41:-The process of segregation of apparently healthy animals from other

animals for a specific period is

        A:-Quarantine

        B:-Infestation

        C:-Isolation

        D:-Culling

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question42:-Iron dextran injections are given to prevent

        A:-Erysepalas

        B:-Piglet anemia

        C:-Pasteurellosis

        D:-Mange

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-Process of separating calf from dam immediately after calving or after

2-3 days and rearing separately is

        A:-Milk replacer feeding

        B:-Pail feeding

        C:-Nurse cow method

        D:-Weaning

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question44:-The instrument used for restraining and short term examination of

bulls

        A:-Milk man's rope

        B:-Squeeze cage

        C:-Bull holder

        D:-Bull leader

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question45:-The process of trimming or removing of comb and wattles is

        A:-Debeaking

        B:-Defeathering

        C:-Dubbing

        D:-Trimming

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-The percentage of milk fat present in heavy cream is

        A:-30-40

        B:-65-85

        C:-20-25

        D:-50-65

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-Identify a cattle breed suitable for hilly areas

        A:-Holstein Friesian

        B:-Jersey

        C:-Vechur

        D:-Kasaragod Dwarf

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question48:-Mating between individuals of any two breeds

        A:-Out breeding

        B:-Line breeding

        C:-Close inbreeding

        D:-Cross breeding

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question49:-At the age of 3 years, which among the following statements is correct

about dentition

(i) Temporary central incisors are replaced by permanent ones

(ii) Temporary centrolaterals are replaced by permanent ones

(iii) Appearance of wear in permanent central incisors

        A:-All the above

        B:-(ii)

        C:-(iii)

        D:-(i)

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question50:-Body temperature of poultry is

        A:-101.5°F

        B:-103.5°F

        C:-102.6°F

        D:-107°F

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question51:-In cow, after fertilization the heart of the embryo begins to beat at an

age of

        A:-10 days

        B:-12 days

        C:-22 days

        D:-40 days

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question52:-The main gas produced in a good quality biogas is

        A:-Methane

        B:-Hydrogen sulphide

        C:-Oxygen

        D:-Carbon dioxide

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question53:-Critical temperature for Indian Cattle is

        A:-101.5°F

        B:-80°F

        C:-85°F

        D:-95°F

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question54:-Percentage of animals that should be replaced yearly in a farm is

        A:-20

        B:-10

        C:-80

        D:-50

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question55:-As per BIS specifications of poultry feed, layer phase I feed should

contain a minimum metabolisable energy of

        A:-2500 Kcal/Kg

        B:-2400 Kcal/Kg

        C:-2600 Kcal/Kg

        D:-2800 Kcal/Kg

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question56:-For collecting hatching eggs in layer ducks, the male : female ratio

may be

        A:-1 : 5

        B:-1 : 8

        C:-1 : 10

        D:-1 : 3

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question57:-The average amount of water required per day for drinking purpose in

cattle

        A:-10 litre

        B:-20 litre

        C:-40 - 120 litre

        D:-150 litre

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question58:-As per the thumb rule for feeding, when green is surplus, amount of

green grass required for an adult cow weighing 250 kg for maintenance ration

        A:-15 kg

        B:-25 - 30 kg

        C:-6 kg

        D:-20 kg

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question59:-On grading an egg is having a free or bubbly air cell of 8 mm depth,

slightly off centered yolk, with a size of 60 g and above, it can be graded as

        A:-A grade

        B:-AA grade

        C:-A small grade

        D:-B grade

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question60:-An example for meat purpose breed of duck is

        A:-White Pekin

        B:-Chara

        C:-Khakhi Campbell

        D:-Indian Runner

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question61:-Hatch weight of quail chick is

        A:-15 g

        B:-10 g

        C:-12 g

        D:-7 g

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-Toxic content present in cotton seed is

        A:-Mimosin

        B:-Aflatoxin

        C:-Gossipol

        D:-Cyanide

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question63:-The system of rearing of cattle where animals are let loose in an open

paddock is

        A:-Free range system

        B:-Semi intensive system

        C:-Intensive system

        D:-Tail to Tail system

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question64:-Name the grass that can be cultivated as an intercrop in arecanut and

coconut plantation

        A:-Guinea grass

        B:-Para grass

        C:-Cowpea

        D:-Azolla

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-The dimension of foot bath that should be arranged in a poultry house

is

        A:-2.5 cm × 2.5 cm

        B:-90 cm × 45 cm

        C:-30 cm × 60 cm

        D:-15 cm × 15 cm

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-The amount of feed restriction that can be practiced in egg type

grower is

        A:-7-8 %

        B:-20%

        C:-10%

        D:-No restriction can be practiced

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question67:-When compared to other poultry, ducks are more susceptible to

        A:-Pasteurellosis

        B:-Duck viral hepatitis

        C:-Aflatoxicosis

        D:-Duck plague

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question68:-Covered area required in a boar's pen

        A:-12

        B:-5

        C:-10

        D:-7.5

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question69:-The vitamin which is known as antisterility vitamin

        A:-Vitamin A

        B:-Vitamin E

        C:-Vitamin K

        D:-Vitamin C

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question70:-The milking method that can be followed for a small teated animal

        A:-Knuckling

        B:-Thumbing

        C:-Full hand milking

        D:-Stripping

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-A good poultry farm should have a feed efficiency per kg egg mass of

        A:-2.2 or less

        B:-1.8 - 2.0

        C:-1.5 or less

        D:-1.0 - 1.2

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Black beard in upper breast region, large elastic snood, fleshy

caruncles are characteristics of

        A:-Drake

        B:-Chicken

        C:-Male turkey

        D:-Female turkey

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question73:-Special nourishing concentrate feed given to piglets in a guard rail,

away from the dam

        A:-Starter

        B:-Milk replacer

        C:-Concentrates

        D:-Creep feed

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question74:-The percentage of water content in hay is

        A:-65%

        B:-Less than 15%

        C:-More than 20%

        D:-35%

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question75:-Secretion of the male accessory sex organ which contains fructose and

citric acid

        A:-Cowpers gland

        B:-Prostate gland

        C:-Seminal vesicle

        D:-Leydig cell

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question76:-The figures in the numerator in the dental formula indicates

(i)   Number of teeth in the upper jaw

(ii) Number of teeth in the lower jaw

(iii) Number of incisors

(iv) Number of premolars

        A:-(i)

        B:-(ii)

        C:-(iii)

        D:-(iv)

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-Average feed required per bird for grower during growing period is

        A:-2 kg

        B:-41 kg

        C:-4.7 kg

        D:-6 kg

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-The quail chick feed upto 3 weeks of age should contain a protein

content of

        A:-22%

        B:-24%

        C:-27%

        D:-25%

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-Name the foetal membrane which helps in exchange of gases and

foetal circulation

        A:-Chorion

        B:-Amnion

        C:-Allantois

        D:-Allanto chorion

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question80:-Furstenberg's rosette is seen in

        A:-Uterus

        B:-Teat

        C:-Penis

        D:-Testes

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-The chemical used for dehorning

        A:-Caustic potash

        B:-Soda bicarb

        C:-Calcium oxide

        D:-Calcium carbonate

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question82:-The branding temperature used in freeze branding is

(i) -79°C

(ii) -196°C

        A:-(i)

        B:-(ii)

        C:-(i) and (ii)

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-The total RBC count of cattle

        A:-8-18 million/

        B:-5-8 million/

        C:-5.5-8.5 million/

        D:-5-10 million/

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-The mating method used in poultry to know the pedigree of chicks is

        A:-Flock mating

        B:-Pen mating

        C:-Mass mating

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-Transportation, concentration, maturation and storage of sperms are

the major functions of which part of the reproductive system

        A:-Testes

        B:-Vas deferens

        C:-Epididymis

        D:-Vasa efferentia

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-The condition in which the normal respiration rate varies

        A:-Sleep

        B:-Unconsciousness

        C:-Milk fever

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question87:-Formation of soft shelled egg may be due to

(i)   Immature shell gland

(ii) Deficiency of Calcium, Phosphorous, Selenium

(iii) Deficiency of Vitamin E, B 12

        A:-(i) and (ii)

        B:-(i) and (iii)

        C:-(ii)

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question88:-In which species saliva is deficient in ptyalin

        A:-Ruminants

        B:-Pig

        C:-Cat

        D:-Dog

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-CME is used for preservation of semen under

        A:-Refrigeration temperature

        B:-Room temperature

        C:-Deep freezing

        D:-Chilled method

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-The total effective photoperiod for layers can be achieved by

increasing the photoperiod weekly upto 16 hours at the rate of

        A:-5 minutes

        B:-10 minutes

        C:-15 minutes

        D:-20 minutes

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-An 8 to 21 days old broiler chicken is called

        A:-Starter

        B:-Chick

        C:-Pre starter

        D:-Grower

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question92:-Largest single organ of the body in poultry

        A:-Testes

        B:-Gizzard

        C:-Heart

        D:-Liver

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-The reasons of infertility may be

(i)    Silent heat

(ii)   Imbalance in the hormonal level

(iii) Deficiency of certain vitamins

(iv) Environmental temperature

        A:-(i)

        B:-(i) and (iv)

        C:-(ii) and (iii)

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question94:-Average rumination time in ruminants is

        A:-6 hour

        B:-8 hour

        C:-10 hour

        D:-12 hour

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-Identify the importance of reticular groove

        A:-Milk by passes rumen to abomasum

        B:-Milk get curdled in abomasum

        C:-Milk is digested by rennin

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question96:-The optimum temperature required for chicken egg in hatcher is

        A:-99.5°F

        B:-99.75°F

        C:-98.5°F

        D:-97.5°F

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question97:-Specific gravity of milk

        A:-1.028 - 1.035

        B:-1.01 - 1.02

        C:-1.12 - 1.32

        D:-1.25 - 1.32

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question98:-On day candling, eggs showing absence of blood vessels, adhering

to shell or pink rings indicates

        A:-Fertile egg

        B:-Early dead embryo

        C:-Infertile egg

        D:-Live embryo

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-Milk which contain maximum 1.5% fat and 9.0% SNF is

        A:-Skim milk

        B:-Humanised milk

        C:-Double toned milk

        D:-Toned milk

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Incubation period of turkey egg is

        A:-28 days

        B:-21 days

        C:-35 days

        D:-18 days

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

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 [Solved paper]Assistant Director (Plastic) Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper|Deputy Manager Kerala PSC Question paper, 139/2023/OL 386/2021

FINAL ANSWER KEY Assistant Director (Plastic) Kerala PSC Previous Question Paper

Question Paper Code: 139/2023/OL

Category Code: 386/2021

Exam: Assistant Director (Plastic)

Date of Test 07-08-2023

Department Industries and Commerce

Question1:-Which of the following is/are correct about intrinsic viscosity?

(i)    It is known as Staudinger index

(ii)   It has the reciprocal of concentration as dimension

(iii)   It is known as limiting viscosity number

(iv)   It is dynamic viscosity

        A:-Only (ii) and (iii)

        B:-Only (i) and (ii)

        C:-Only (i) and (iii)

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question2:-Which of the following is not correct about cationic polymerization?

(i)   Molecular weight depends on monomer concentration

(ii) Molecular weight increases as temperature increases

(iii) The process is exothermic

(iv)   As dielectric constant of solvent increases molecular weight increases

        A:-Only (ii)

        B:-Only (iv)

        C:-Only (iii)

        D:-Only (i) and (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Which of the following is used as a telogen in the polymerization of

bromotrifluoroethylene?

        A:-Trifluoroethylene

        B:-Bromotrifluoromethane

        C:-Tetrafluoroethylene

        D:-Carbon tetrachloride

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question4:-Which of the following is in the correct with respect to their Tg?

        A:-

Polymethylmethacrylate>Polybutylacrylate>Polyethylacylate>Polymethacrylate

        B:-

Polymethylmethacrylate>Polymethacrylate>Polybutylacrylate>Polyethylacylate

        C:-Polymethylmethacrylate>Polymethacrylate>Polyethylacylate

>Polybutylacrylate

        D:-Polymethacrylate>Polyethylacylate

>Polybutylacrylate>Polymethylmethacrylate

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question5:-The unit of K value in Mark-Houwink equation is

        A:- /g

        B:-g/

        C:-°C

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question6:-What is the molecular weight of polycaprolactum with degree of

polymerisation 1000?

        A:-134500

        B:-113000

        C:-119000

        D:-770000

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-Which polymerization method is suitable for Polyacrylonitrile?

        A:-Anionic polymerization

        B:-Coordination polymerization

        C:-Cationic polymerization

        D:-Free radical polymerization

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-The functionality of acetylene is

        A:-1

        B:-2

        C:-3

        D:-4

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question9:-Reference material used in NMR is

        A:-Tetramethylsilane

        B:-Dimethylsilane

        C:-Trimethylsilane

        D:-Triichloromethylsilane

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question10:-The polymer which is used in space suit is

        A:-Polyphenyleneoxide

        B:-Polycarbonate

        C:-Torlon

        D:-Nomex

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question11:-Which among the following have the lowest LOI?

        A:-PTFE

        B:-PEEK

        C:-Polyacetal

        D:-PVC

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-An exceptionally tough and transparent material used in heart valve

and pace component is

        A:-PE

        B:-PC

        C:-Polysulphone

        D:-PMMA

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question13:-Which among the following is a best antidegradant against metal

poison?

        A:-BHT

        B:-DNPD

        C:-ODPA

        D:-PAN

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question14:-The polymer which is used for water purification

        A:-Polyacrylamide

        B:-Polysulphone

        C:-Polyethylene oxide

        D:-Polyester

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question15:-Which among the following is not a photo conducting polymer?

        A:-Poly N-vinyl carbazole

        B:-Polythiophene

        C:-Polyvinylpyrene

        D:-Poly 2- vinyl carbazole

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-Which polymerization technique often result low molecular weight

polymer?

        A:-Bulk polymerization

        B:-Emulsion polymerization

        C:-Suspension polymerization

        D:-Solution polymerization

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question17:-Equal number of molecules with M1=1000 and M2=10000 are mixed.

The weight average of the resulting polymer will be

        A:-9182 g

        B:-8970 g

        C:-9899 g

        D:-9656 g

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-Which of the following is correct about GPC

(i)   Polymer molecules are separated according to their size

(ii)   It is a primary method for the determination of molecular weight

(iii) It is used for the determination of Mn and Mw

(iv)   It is used for the determination of MWD

        A:-(i), (ii) and (iii)

        B:-(i), (iii) and (iv)

        C:-(ii), (iii) and (iv)

        D:-All of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question19:-Which of the following bonds posses highest bond energy?

        A:-C-C

        B:-B-O

        C:-SI-O

        D:-SI-N

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question20:-Ionic polymers are used for heterogeneous catalysis because of its

__________ property

        A:-Ionic cross-linking

        B:-Ion-exchange capability

        C:-Hydrophilicity

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question21:-Natural rubber is chemically known as

        A:-Cis-1,4 polyisoprene

        B:-Trans-1,4 polyisoprene

        C:-Cis-1,3 polyisoprene

        D:-Trans-1,3 polyisoprene

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question22:-What is the role of ammonia in latex preservation?

        A:-Use as a bactericide

        B:-Enhances the colloidal stability of latex

        C:-Deactivates harmful metal ions

        D:-All the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question23:-In the latex concentration methods, which process involve only the

removal of water

        A:-Evaporation

        B:-Electrodecantation

        C:-Creaming

        D:-Centrifuging

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-Which rubber among the following is used in products for which

lightness of colour is important?

        A:-Ribbed smoke sheets

        B:-pale crepe rubber

        C:-Brown and Blanket Crepes

        D:-Michelin sheets

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question25:-The rubber containing 20% to 30% of an aromatic or naphthenic

process oil is called

        A:-Peptized Rubber

        B:-Deproteinized Natural Rubber

        C:-Oil-extended Natural Rubber

        D:-Tire Rubber

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question26:-The principle of the Reclaiming processes is

        A:-Vulcanization

        B:-Devulcanization

        C:-Creaming

        D:-None of the these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question27:-Choose wrong statement among the following

(i)   Elastomers exhibits slow recovery after extension

(ii)   Elastomers can be vulcanised

(iii) Elastomeric properties are affected by the Tg

(iii)   Mechanical properties of elastomers are due to cross-linked, long-chain,

flexible polymer molecules.

        A:-Only (i)

        B:-(ii) and (iii)

        C:-(iii) and (iv)

        D:-(ii) and (iv)

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question28:-The polymeric materials, which combine the processability of

thermoplastics and the functional performance of vulcanised rubbers are called

        A:-Thermoplastics

        B:-Elastomer

        C:-Thermoplastic elastomer

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question29:-Polychloroprene rubber is popularly known as

        A:-Polynorbornene

        B:-Neoprene

        C:-Butyl rubber

        D:-Nitrile rubber

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-Which synthetic rubber is also commonly known as Hypalon

        A:-Styrene butadiene rubber

        B:-Polychloroprene rubber

        C:-Nitrile rubber

        D:-Chlorosulphonated polyethylene

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question31:-Example for flame retardant used in rubber compounding

        A:-Antimony compounds

        B:-Fluorocarbons

        C:-Amines

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question32:-Conventional vulcanizing system containing

        A:-High sulfure/accelerator ratio

        B:-High accelerator/sulfur ratios

        C:-Intermediate between (1) and (2)

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question33:-The additive used to improve the mixing and processing of the rubber

compound is

        A:-Accelerator

        B:-Vulcanizing agent

        C:-Processing aid

        D:-Antioxidant

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question34:-Monomers of butyl rubber are

        A:-Isobutene, isoprene

        B:-Isobutadiene, isoprene

        C:-Isobutylene, isoprene

        D:-Isobutylene, Isobutadiene

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-Blowing agents are used in the manufacture of

        A:-Sponge rubber

        B:-Tire tube

        C:-Conveyor Belt

        D:-None of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question36:-Name the person who discovered vulcanization

        A:-Charles Goodyear

        B:-Thomas Edison

        C:-Alexander Graham Bell

        D:-George Washington Carver

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question37:-EPDM stands for

        A:-Ethylene propylene diene monomer

        B:-Epoxidized diene monomer

        C:-Enzyme protonated diene monomer

        D:-Ethylene propylene natural rubber

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-Select inorganic rubber among the following

        A:-Nitrile rubber

        B:-Natural rubber

        C:-Butyl rubber

        D:-Silicon rubber

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-An example for a coplolymer

        A:-Nitrile rubber

        B:-Natural rubber

        C:-Butyl rubber

        D:-Silicon rubber

        Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

Question40:-Tripsometer is used to determine

        A:-Abrasion resistance

        B:-Cure time

        C:-Rebound resilience

        D:-Compression set

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-How much rolling resistance should be reduced to get 1% fuel

efficiency?

        A:-2% to 3%

        B:-3% to 5%

        C:-5% to 7%

        D:-7% to 9%

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question42:-Which method is preferred to make rubber products if less heat and

more pressure is required for curing?

        A:-Open curing in autoclaves

        B:-Water curing

        C:-Hot air curing

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question43:-Which material is better if we required a short circuit temperature up

to 250°C in power cables?

        A:-Crosslinked polyethylene

        B:-Polyvinyl chloride

        C:-Flurocarbon rubber

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question44:-Which is/are the effective method/methods to control the 'nerve'

during rubber processing?

        A:-Use factice

        B:-Using high structure furnace black

        C:-Increase filler loading

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-K-value of PVC material recommended in insulating material using in

low and medium voltage cables

        A:-45 to 50

        B:-50 to 60

        C:-65 to 70

        D:-70 to 75

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question46:-Field used in injection bottle cap is

        A:-Aluminium silicate

        B:-Silica

        C:-Barium sulphate

        D:-Clay

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question47:-Which is the preferred speed ratio of four roll calendar matachin where

both side topping can do?

        A:-2:3:3:2

        B:-2:3:2:3

        C:-3:2:2:3

        D:-3:2:3:2

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question48:-Which is the optimal molar ratio of resorcinol to formaldehyde in nylon

coated fabric used in rubber compound?

        A:-1:1 to 1:2

        B:-1:2 to 1:3

        C:-1.5:1 to 1.5:2

        D:-1.5:2 to 1.5:3

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question49:-Which chemical does reduce the dissociation temperature of DNPT in

MC sheet?

        A:-HSR

        B:-Vulcafor-F

        C:-Stearic acid

        D:-DEG

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-Which rubber is suitable for manufacturing inner liners for hot water

washing hoses using in washing machines?

        A:-Natural Rubber

        B:-SBR

        C:-EPDM

        D:-NBR

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question51:-Which among the following is/are act as heat sensitizing agent in heat

sensitized latex?

        A:-Ammonium sulphate

        B:-Ammonium per sulphate

        C:-DPG

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question52:-Which process is/are suitable for manufacturing baby soothers?

        A:-Straight dipping

        B:-Heat sensitized dipping

        C:-Dipping by electrodeposition

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question53:-Which is using for improving flame resistance of latex foam?

        A:-Zinc oxide

        B:-Paraffine hydrocarbons

        C:-Titanium dioxide

        D:-Hydrated aluminum oxide

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question54:-Which substance is/are added to improve pressure sensitive adhesion

in latex-based adhesive?

        A:-PF resin

        B:-CI resine

        C:-Rosin derivatives

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question55:-Which material is widely used in latex - based paper adhesives?

        A:-CI resin

        B:-Cooked starch

        C:-Rosin derivatives

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question56:-Which material is widely used to make curing bags in tyre moulds?

        A:-Sulphur cured IIR

        B:-Resin cured IIR

        C:-Di oxime cured IIR

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question57:-In hoses, if braid angle is greater than neutral then hose will have

        A:-Increased length and increased diameter

        B:-Increased length and decreased diameter

        C:-Decreased length and increased diameter

        D:-Decreased length and Decreased diameter

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question58:-Which adhesive is generally used when moulded and vulcanized

rubber piece is directly adhered on the metal parts in rubber to metal bonded

products?

        A:-Epoxy adhesive

        B:-PU based adhesives

        C:-NR latex-based adhesives

        D:-Polymide adhesive

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question59:-Which type of accelerators are generally avoided in rubber to metal

bonded products?

        A:-Thiurams

        B:-Thiazoles

        C:-Sulphenamide

        D:-All of these

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question60:-What is the role of Vulcastab L.S in casted latex products?

        A:-Stabilizer

        B:-Vulcanizing agent

        C:-Wetting agent

        D:-Antioxidant

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question61:-Polypropylene produced commercially using a Ziegler-Natta catalyst is

predominantly

        A:-Atactic

        B:-Syndiotactic

        C:-Isotactic

        D:-Crosslinked

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question62:-The characteristics of condensation polymerization are given below

(i)   Only -C-C- linkages present in the polymer structure

(ii) Use of bifunctional of polyfunctional monomers

(iii) Elimination of a small by product molecule

Which of the following is true?

        A:-(i), (ii), (iii)

        B:-(ii) and (iii)

        C:-(i) and (ii)

        D:-Only (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question63:-As the polymer crystallinity increases, the brittleness of polymer

        A:-Increases

        B:-Decreases

        C:-Depends in length of branching in polymer

        D:-Remains constants

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question64:-Consider the following two transitions from the "solid" to the liquid or

rubbery state shown below on a plot of specific volume (Vs) vs temperature (T)

        A:-The transition X is Glass transition temperature (Tg) while transition Y is

crystalline melting point (Tm)

        B:-The transition X is crystalline melting point (Tm) while transition Y is Glass

transition temperature (Tg)

        C:-X and Y are melting points, but X is the Tm of a semi-crystalline material

and Y is the Tm of an almost perfect crystal

        D:-X and Y are Tg (Glass transition temperatures), but X is the Tg of a semicrystalline material and Y is the Tg of an almost perfect crystal

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-Which of the following polymers would you except to be most suitable

for the production of a rubber car bumper guard?

        A:-Atactic polystyrene (Tg ˜100ºC)

        B:-A random ethylene/propylene copolymer (50/50 composition) Tg ˜40ºC)

        C:-Low density polyethylene

        D:-High density polyethylene

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-Which of the following material is not made by injection molding?

        A:-Nuts

        B:-Tubes

        C:-Cups

        D:-Electrical fittings

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-Which one of the following is a condensation polymer?

        A:-Nylon

        B:-Polythene

        C:-PVC

        D:-Teflon

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question68:-In blow molding, to inflate soft plastic, which medium is used?

        A:-Air

        B:-Water

        C:-Oil

        D:-Alcohol

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question69:-Which of the following types of molecular structure are present in

thermosetting polymers?

        A:-Linear polymers

        B:-Branched polymers

        C:-Cross-linked polymers

        D:-Long chain polymers

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question70:-Which one is the natural polyamide polymer?

        A:-Cotton

        B:-Silk

        C:-Nylon-6

        D:-Jute

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question71:-A continuous and aligned glass fiber-reinforced composite consists of

30 vol% glass fibers having a modulus of elasticity of 69 GPa and 70 vol% polyester

resin that, when hardened, displays a modulus of 3.4 GPa. The modulus of elasticity

of this composite in the longitudinal direction is

        A:-23.1 GPa

        B:-65.6 GPa

        C:-42.76 GPa

        D:-72.4 GPa

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Dry spinning is a process

        A:-Which is used for polymers that can be melted easily

        B:-Which involves dissolving polymer in a solvent and the solution is extruded

into a chemical bath

        C:-Which involves dissolving the polymer into a solvent that can be

evaporated

        D:-Which is used only for network polymers

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question73:-Which of the following statements about plasticizers is true?

        A:-Plasticizers increase the modulus while decreasing the glass transition

temperature

        B:-Plasticizers decrease the modulus while increasing the glass transition

temperature

        C:-Plasticizers are added to increase the intermolecular forces between the

chains

        D:-Plasticizers are high boiling organic esters

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question74:-For 1 inch schedule 40 PVC pipe and 1 inch schedule 80 PVC pipe

which of the following statement is correct?

        A:-Schedule 80 PVC pipe has a larger outside diameter than schedule 40 pipe

        B:-Schedule 40 PVC pipe has a larger outside diameter than schedule 80 pipe

        C:-Schedule 80 PVC pipe has a smaller inside diameter than schedule 40 pipe

        D:-Schedule 40 PVC pipe has a smaller inside diameter than schedule 80 pipe

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-Select the correct option

        A:-PCTFE is a thermoplastic polymer and its repeating unit is

        B:-PCTFE is a thermoplastic polymer and its repeating unit is

        C:-PCTFE is a thermoplastic polymer and its repeating unit is

        D:-PCTFE is a thermoplastic polymer and its repeating unit is

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question76:-Which of the following statements is true for PVC-O pipes?

        A:-PVC-O pipes are obtained by the process of molecular orientation of UPVC

to obtain a layered structure

        B:-PVC-O pipes are obtained by turning the layered structure of UPVC into an

amorphous structure

        C:-PVC-O pipes are obtained by the addition of modifying agents to PVC

        D:-PVC-O pipes are obtained by adding oxygen atoms to PVC

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-Which of the following will not help in controlling the flow lines in

injection molding?

        A:-Increasing the injection speed, pressure and material temperature

        B:-Round the corners of the mold where wall thickness increases

        C:-Decrease the nozzle diameter to reduce the melt flow rate

        D:-Relocation of mold gates to create more distance between them and the

mold coolants

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question78:-Overhead plastic water tanks are manufactured by ___________ process

        A:-Injection molding

        B:-Rotomolding

        C:-Compression molding

        D:-Transfer molding

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question79:-The formation of polyurethane involves chemical reaction between

        A:-a di/poly isocyanate and a diol of polyol

        B:-Hexamethylene diamine and methanol

        C:-Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

        D:-Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question80:-Which of the following statements is correct?

        A:-LDPE has low degrees of branching

        B:-HDPE has high degree of short and long chain branching

        C:-UHMWPE is made up of extremely long chains of polyethylene, which all

align in the same direction

        D:-UHMWPE is made up of short chains of polyethylene, which all align in the

same direction

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question81:-Which among the following test is carried out as per ASTM D 256

        A:-Tensile testing

        B:-Izod impact testing

        C:-Tear Strength testing

        D:-Vicat softening temperature

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-As per is 532 : 2006 tension set of cycle tube shall not be more than

        A:-10%

        B:-12%

        C:-15%

        D:-20%

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:-In tensile testing of a rubber sample using standard dumbbell

specimen, the maximum load observed is 60 N. Find the ultimate tensile strength of

the gague length of specimen = 200mm, thickness of specimen = 2mm and the

wodth of specimen at narrow portion = 633

        A:-5N/

        B:-0.05 N/

        C:-50 kg/

        D:-0.15 N/

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question84:-Expression for cure index (ΔtL) in a cure characteristics study using

money viscometer with a large rotor is

        A:-Δ

        B:-Δ

        C:-Δ

        D:-Δ

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question85:-According to BIS specification minimum mechanical stability time

required for concentrated NR latex is

        A:-105

        B:-546

        C:-475

        D:-286

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-In order to find plasticity retention index samples are aged

        A:-For 30 minutes at 140ºC

        B:-For 48 hours at 100ºC

        C:-For 24 hours at 140ºC

        D:-For 42 minute at 100ºC

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question87:-Capacitance of a capacitor made only with two metallic sheets is

increased from 2 F to 5F when the gap between is filled with a polymer. Find the

dielectric constant of that polymer

        A:-10

        B:-2.5

        C:-0.4

        D:-7

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question88:-Which among the following has highest iodine adsorption number

        A:-HAF

        B:-SAF

        C:-ISAF

        D:-GPF

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question89:-Roll deflection is observed in calendars due to

(i)   The force that pulls calenders rolls apart is higher in middle and less at ends

(ii)   Rolls tend to bend under its own weight

(iii)   Uniformly distributed normal force from the compound

        A:- (i) and (ii)

        B:-(i) only

        C:-(ii) only

        D:-(ii) and (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question90:-In a three roll calender the ratio of speed of middle roll and bottom roll

is 1:1.5. This calender can be used for

        A:-Frictioning

        B:-Topping

        C:-Spreading

        D:-None of the above

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question91:-Compression ratio that can be used for rigid PVC extruder is

        A:-3.9:1

        B:-1.2:1

        C:-2.5:1

        D:-10:1

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-Which method is used for the production of electric wires

        A:-Vented extrusion

        B:-Cross head extrusion

        C:-Twin screw extrusion

        D:-Blown film extrusion

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question93:-Sink mark defect in transfer molding can be eliminated by

(i)   Increasing transfer pressure

(ii)   Increasing charge weight

(iii)   Reducing mold temperature

        A:-(i) only

        B:-(i) and (ii)

        C:-(ii) only

        D:-(i), (ii) and (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question94:-Which among the following gate is preferred for making solid block

type injection molded articles

        A:-Tab gate

        B:-Film gate

        C:-Ring gate

        D:-Pin gate

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question95:-Rotors of banbury are

        A:-Intemeshing

        B:-Non Intemeshing

        C:-can be intemeshing or non intemeshing

        D:-Like rolls of two roll mill

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question96:-In compounding of rubber using two roll mill, dispersive mixing can be

improved by

(i)   Increasing shear rate

(ii)   Reducing gap between rolls

(iii)   homogenization

        A:-(i) only

        B:-(iii) only

        C:-(i), (ii) and (iii)

        D:-(i) and (ii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question97:-Uniform thickness of extrusion blow molded articles are achieved by

(i)   Extruding parison with uniform thickness

(ii)   Applying high blowing pressure

(iii)   Parison programming

        A:-(i) only

        B:-(ii) and (iii)

        C:-(iii) only

        D:-(i), (ii) and (iii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Forming temperature of polypropylene used for thermoforming is

        A:-80-110ºC

        B:-140-165ºC

        C:-175-210ºC

        D:-Any temperature above

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question99:-Identify the combination of chemicals that can be used for RIM

        A:-Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid

        B:-Terpthalic acid and ethylene glycol

        C:-Poly(propylene oxide) triol and methylene diphenyl diisocyanate

        D:-Ethylene oxide and diphenyl guanidine

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Sequence of addition of compounding ingredients in early oil addition

method

(i)   Elastomer

(ii)   Liquid ingredients

(iii)   Dry ingredients

        A:-(i), (ii), (iii)

        B:-(ii), (i), (iii)

        C:-(iii), (ii), (i)

        D:-(i), (iii), (ii)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

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Assistant Electrical Inspector 96/2025 Syllabus

[PDF] Syllabus Assistant Professor Hotel Management|570/2024 Syllabus Kerala PSC

Part I- 100 Marks

Module 1

Organisational behaviour and mangerial functions

Role of a manager-decision making-organisational climate and change-organisation structure and processes-behavioural dynamics

Module 2

Hospitality operations management

Food & beverage management- accommodation management-managing environmental issues- hospitality entrepreneurship-laws and standards related to hospitality business

Module 3

Fundamentals of marketing management

Evolution of marketing-nine principles of marketingmarketing strategy for hospitality industry-the service quality-pricing strategies and techniques in hospitalitypublicity and promotion-experimental marketingconsumer protection in india-financial control in marketing-marketing audit

Module 4

Management of production and operations

Issues in production/operations management, forecasting, production system design, production planning & scheduling, materials planning, emerging issues in planning/operations management

Module 5

Principles of revenue and yield management

The concept of revenue management- measuring yieldelements of revenue management-using revenue management-revenue management computer softwarerevenue management team-industry-wise comparison of yield management application

Module 6

Marketing research and data analytics

Marketing resarch concepts and design-data collection-data processing and analysis-multivariate analysis

Module 7

Ecnomics in management

Introduction to management economics-demand & revenue analysis-production and cost analysis-pricing decisions

Module 8

Planning for human resources

Learning organization and leadership-basics of human resource planning-job evaluation-action areas – issues and experiences-measurements in human resource planningcorporate social responsibilities- competency mapping & concept of asessment centers-human resource development

Module 9

Sales management

Sales management functions-selling skills- sales force management-planning and control of the sales effort

Module 10

Labour laws (legal framework in hospitality)

Introduction to labour legislation-laws on working conditions-industrial relations law-wages and labour laws-laws for labour welfare and social security

Paper II

Development and planning of property

Technical requirements as established by law and need-facilities design & analysis-global green initiative-planning for special guests- study of architectural features of some of the prominent hotels

Module 1

Service marketing & consumer behaviour in hospitality industry

Marketing of services - concepts and issuesmarketing of hospitality services - concepts & issues, marketing of education & professional services, consumer behaviour - issues & concepts, individual influences on buying behaviour, group influences on consumer behaviour, the buying process, modelling buyer behaviour

Module 2

International marketing in hospitality

Introduction to international marketing, environment of international business, policy frame work and procedural aspects, international marketing mix, international marketing planning

Module 3

International marketing in hospitality

Introduction to international marketing, environment of international business, policy frame work and procedural aspects, international marketing mix, international marketing planning

Module 4

Information technology in hospitality management

Managerial applications of computers-computers and decisional techniques-advanced decisional techniques-management information systemsystems analysis and computer languages

Module 5

Materials and equipment management

Material handling-materials management-work study-quality control-maintenance managementwaste mangement-packaging & distribution mangement

Module 6

Research methodology

Introduction to research methodology-data collection & measurement-data presentation & analysis-report writing & presentation

Module 7

Mice

Corporate sector & business traveller-incentive travel-meetings,workshop,seminar& conferencetrade fair & exhibitions-planning mice-linkage with tourism-convention management, managing expositions

Module 8

Entrepreneurial management in small and medium business enterprises

Entrepreneur and entrepreneurship, establishing small-scale enterprises, small-scale enterprises – getting organized, operating the small-scale enterprise, performance appraisal and growth strategies

Module 9

Organisational change management strategies

Concept of managing change-daiognosis and intervention-models of organisational changeconsulting: approches & skills

Module 10

Social processes and behavioural challenges

Social and orgnisational cultures-intra-personal processess-group and intergroup processesorganisational processes

Total marks 100

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 [New]ICDS Supervisor Answer Key|253/2024 Answer Key Kerala PSC

PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY ICDS Supervisor

Question Paper Code: 16/2025/OL

Category Code: 253/2024

Exam: Supervisor (ICDS)

Date of Test 13-02-2025

Department Women & Child Development

ICDS Supervisor Answer Key 253/2024

Question1:-A family where two previously divorced or widowed individuals with

children marry or cohabitate is called a _______

        A:-Nuclear Family

        B:-Extended Family

        C:-Blended Family

        D:-Single-Parent Family

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question2:-The process by which an individual learns and internalizes the values,

beliefs, and norms of a culture is called _______

        A:-Enculturation

        B:-Acculturation

        C:-Assimilation

        D:-Diffusion

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question3:-Which of the following is an example of secondary socialization?

        A:-A child learning the family's religious practices

        B:-A child learning how to speak through interactions with family members

        C:-A child learning societal gender norms through media and peer groups

        D:-A child learning basic motor skills through play

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Which of the following best defines a polymorous family?

        A:-Two unmarried individuals living together in a committed romantic

relationship

        B:-A family in which extended members live in a single household

        C:-A family unit consisting of only one parent and their children

        D:-A family where one or both partners have consensual relationship with

multiple people

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question5:-Assertion (A) : Domestic violence laws often aim to protect victims

regardless of gender

Reason (R) : Patriarchal structures are the sole contributors to domestic violence.

        A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

        B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

        C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false

        D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question6:-Which of the following is NOT a direct social consequence of alcoholism?

        A:-Family breakdown

        B:-Increase in community cohesion

        C:-Domestic violence

        D:-Workplace absenteeism

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question7:-Which provision of Indian law empowers the court to presume abetment

of suicide in cases of dowry harassment?

        A:-Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act

        B:-Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act

        C:-Section 498A of the IPC

        D:-Section 304B of the IPC

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question8:-In 2022, India introduced a first-of-its-kind scheme aimed specifically at

the employment of transgender individuals. Which state launched this initiative?

        A:-Tamil Nadu

        B:-Kerala

        C:-Maharashtra

        D:-Gujarat

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-Which global initiative has most significantly influenced the

development of elderly care policies in developing countries?

        A:-The United Nations' Madrid International Plan of Action on Ageing (2002)

        B:-The world Health Organization's Global Strategy and Action Plan on Ageing

and Health (2016)

        C:-The International Labour Organization's Convention on the Rights of Older

Workers (2001)

        D:-The World Bank's Global Aging and Pension Reform Initiative (2012)

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question10:-Assertion (A) : Globalization has led to an increase in child labour in

certain industries in developing countries

Reason (R) :Globalization often leads to an increased demand for cheap labour,

which exploits vulnerable children in low-wage sectors.

        A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

        B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

        C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false

        D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question11:-Which of the following statements about greenhouse gases is/are

correct?

i. The term greenhouse gases refer to the atmospheric gases that absorb the

spectrum and

    emit them back within the thermal range of infrared radiation.

ii. These gases can significantly affect the global temperature

iii. The temperature of the Earth's surface would have been almost 59° Fahrenheit

colder than the present temperature in the presence of these gases

options

        A:-only i is correct

        B:-only ii is correct

        C:-both i and ii are correct

        D:-All are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question12:-Efficient consumerism can be achieved by :

i.   Product standards may be verified before buying from market

ii. Waste minimization techniques can be adopted

iii. Recycling and proper disposal of waste materials can be done

iv. Enactment and implementation of strict legislation

        A:-only i is correct

        B:-only ii is correct

        C:-both i and ii are correct

        D:-all are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question13:-Which is the Indian labour law and social security measure that aims to

guarantee the right to work?

        A:-MGNREGA 2005

        B:-Unorganized Workers' Social Security Act, 2008

        C:-Employment Exchange Act, 1959

        D:-Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question14:-What is the key difference between resettlement and rehabilitation in

the context of displaced persons and project-affected persons?

        A:-Resettlement involves psychological support, while rehabilitation is limited

to economic compensation

        B:-Resettlement focuses on one-time relocation, while rehabilitation focuses

on rebuilding livelihoods and addressing socio-cultural aspects

        C:-Rehabilitation is a one-time process, while resettlement is continuous

        D:-Resettlement focuses only on common property resources while

rehabilitation excludes economic factors

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question15:-Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Self-Help

Group (SHG) programme?

i. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank

of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived

ii. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an

individual member takes

        A:-only i and ii

        B:-only i

        C:-only ii

        D:-none

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question16:-Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes

given below :

List I                                             List II

1. B.R. Mehta Committee             A. 73rd Amendment Act

2. Ashok Mehta Committee          B.   Two tier system

3. Panchayath Raj Institutions      C.   Central Finance Commission

4. Article 243 (1)                       D.   Three Tier System

        A:-1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

        B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

        C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

        D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question17:-Assertion (A) : Education is the most effective tool to reduce gender

discrimination in society

Reason (R) :     Educating women improves their employability, increases decisionmaking

                        power and reduces dependence

        A:-Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

        B:-Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

        C:-(A) is true, but (R) is false

        D:-(A) is false, but (R) is true

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question18:-What is a significant barrier to women's participation in political

processes?

        A:-Equal representation in leadership positions

        B:-Cultural and social norms promoting gender equality

        C:-Financial dependence and unequal access to resources

        D:-Absence of women-centric issues in governance

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question19:-Match the international conventions with their focus areas related to

women in governance

Conventions/Treaties                                  Focus Areas

1. CEDAW                                            A. 1993

2. Beijing Declaration                            B. International human rights treaty

3. UNSCR 1325                                    C. Women, Peace and Security Agenda

4. Vienna Declaration                            D. Global agenda for gender equality

        A:-1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

        B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

        C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

        D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question20:-Which of the following was not recommended by the 73rd

Constitutional Amendment Act regarding Panchayati Raj?

i.   33% seats will be reserved for women candidates at all levels in all elected rural

bodies

ii. States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to

Panchayati Raj institutions

iii. The act establishes a two-tier structure for panchayaths.

        A:-only i

        B:-ii and iii

        C:-only ii

        D:-only iii

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question21:-Which of the following is true about structured interviews?

i.   All interviewees receive the same context of questioning

ii. Interviewers strictly follow the order and working of questions.

iii. Questions are usually open-ended and allow for flexible responses

iv.   Structured interviews are commonly used in survey research

        A:-only (i and ii)

        B:-only (i, ii and iii)

        C:-only (i and iii)

        D:-only (i, ii and iv)

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question22:-One of the advantages of self-completion questionnaires over

structured interviews is that :

        A:-They are quicker and cheaper to administer

        B:-They create interviewer effects

        C:-They have greater measurement validity

        D:-They are less prone to inter-coder variation

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question23:-Assertion (A) : Closed questions are easier and quicker for interviewers

and respondents to

                      complete

Reason (R) : In closed questions, respondents are not required to write

extensively but

                      instead select or circle predefined answers

        A:-Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct

explanation of (A)

        B:-Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct

explanation of (A)

        C:-Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false

        D:-Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question24:-Match the following methods with their specific features

Column A (Methods)                               Column B (Specific Features)

1. Case Study                                    A. Requires direct interaction in participants'

natural

                                                              environment

2. Focus Group Discussion                  B. Relies on firsthand data collected directly

from

                                                              individuals or groups

3. Participant Observation                   C. Examines a single case or phenomenon in

great

                                                              detail over a period of time

4. Primary Data                                  D. Uses guided group interaction to gather

                                                               perceptions and opinions

        A:-1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

        B:-1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

        C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

        D:-1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question25:-Which of the following terms best describes systematic walks with key

informants through the area of interest, observing land and water use, and seeking

problems and solutions?

        A:-Systemic walk

        B:-Field survey

        C:-Community assessment walk

        D:-Transect walk

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question26:-Which of the following is considered the earliest organized social

welfare effort?

        A:-Charity Organization Societies

        B:-Elizabethan Poor Laws

        C:-Settlement House Movement

        D:-Beveridge Report

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question27:-Social work and social service differ in

        A:-The scale of intervention

        B:-The need for professional training

        C:-Their ultimate objectives

        D:-Their association with government welfare

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question28:-Which value is most critical when a social worker intervenes in a case

of child abuse?

        A:-Respect for client confidentiality

        B:-Social justice

        C:-Cultural competence

        D:-Non-maleficence

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question29:-Which statement is TRUE about the relationship between IFSW and

IASSW?

I.   Both organizations focus exclusively on practitioner development

II. IFSW represents practitioners, while IASSW focuses on educators and

researchers

III. IASSW is a subset of IFSW.

IV. Both organizations are responsible for accrediting social work degress globally

        A:-only (i and ii)

        B:-only (ii)

        C:-only (i, iii and iv)

        D:-only (iv)

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question30:-Which of the following is an example of "Engage in practice-informed

research"?

        A:-Conducting a randomized control trial on a new intervention

        B:-Analyzing census data for a community project

        C:-Developing a new diagnostic tool for assessments

        D:-Using client feedback to improve service delivery methods

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question31:-During the exploration phase of social case work, a common challenge

is

        A:-Balancing the client's self-determination with confidentiality

        B:-Ensuring that the client fully discloses all relevant information

        C:-Developing immediate intervention strategies

        D:-Establishing a professional yet empathetic client-worker relationship

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-In social case work, self-determination can conflict with which of the

following principles?

        A:-Confidentiality in cases of client disclosure

        B:-Beneficence when a client's decision may lead to self-harm

        C:-Justice when prioritizing community welfare over individual autonomy

        D:-Accountability in reporting client progress to supervisors

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question33:-Why is empathy considered a transformative skill in social case work?

        A:-It allows the worker to mirror the client's emotional state for validation

        B:-It bridges the power imbalance between the worker and client by promoting

mutual understanding

        C:-It replaces the need for solution-focused techniques by fostering emotional

connection

        D:-It ensures the client accepts the social worker's interventions without

resistance

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question34:-Which principle is critical during the initial phase of group formation?

        A:-Respect for individuality

        B:-Evaluation of group goals

        C:-Identification of latent leadership

        D:-Promotion of group cohesion

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question35:-Which factor best indicates active participation in a therapeutic group?

        A:-High attendance rates

        B:-Voluntary sharing of experiences

        C:-Agreement with group leader's views

        D:-Lengthy contributions to discussions

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question36:-Which feedback type is most effective in encouraging behavior change

within a group setting?

        A:-General positive feedback

        B:-Constructive feedback with specific examples

        C:-Negative feedback addressing faults

        D:-Group consensus-based feedback

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-In the process of community organization, which of the following is

correct sequential flow of roles played by a community organizer to ensure that a

community is empowered effectively?

        A:-Building rapport → Assessing community needs → Developing strategies →

Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress

        B:-Assessing community needs → Building rapport → Developing strategies →

Mobilizing community participation → Evaluating progress

        C:-Building rapport → Mobilizing Community Participation → Assessing

community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress

        D:-Mobilizing Community Participation → Building rapport → Assessing

community needs → Developing strategies → Evaluating progress

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question38:-Match the community development strategy with the theorist who

advocated for it.

Strategies                                   Theorists

1. Empowerment through Education              A.   Paul Freire

2. Mobilizing Resources for change                B.   Saul Alinsky

3. Direct Action for justice                            C.   Mary Parker Follett

4. Participatory leadership    D.   Jim Ife    

5. Conflict and Cooperation Balance              E.    Jack Rothman

Options :

        A:-1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E

        B:-1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C, 5-E

        C:-1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-E, 5-D

        D:-1-C, 2-B, 3-E, 4-D, 5-A

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question39:-Which of the following best describes social welfare?

        A:-A system that supports only unemployed individuals

        B:-A system focused on the collective well-being and needs of individuals and

communities

        C:-A system that offers legal assistance

        D:-A method for income generation

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question40:-The first step in the process of social welfare administration is

        A:-Program implementation

        B:-Policy evaluation

        C:-Assessing community needs

        D:-Financial management

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question41:-Social welfare programs should be designed to

        A:-Address only the immediate needs of individuals

        B:-Provide long-term solutions to societal issues

        C:-Focus solely on the financial aspects

        D:-Serve a limited number of individuals

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question42:-Which of the following is the role of a social action group?

        A:-Advocate for social change and challenge the status quo

        B:-Work only with elected representatives

        C:-Preserve existing social structures

        D:-Support governmental policies without question

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question43:-Which theory focuses on the idea that social action arises from the

meanings individuals attach to their actions and social interactions?

        A:-Structural functionalism

        B:-Symbolic interactionism

        C:-Feminist theory

        D:-Conflict theory

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question44:-Which type of sampling involves dividing the population into distinct

subgroups and selecting a random sample from each subgroup?

        A:-Simple Random Sampling

        B:-Stratified Sampling

        C:-Cluster Sampling

        D:-Convenience Sampling

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question45:-Which of the following is used to measure the spread or dispersion of

data in a dataset?

        A:-Mean

        B:-Standard deviation

        C:-Median

        D:-Mode

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question46:-Which of the following is the primary purpose of performing an ANOVA

test?

        A:-Compare the means of two or more groups

        B:-Determine the correlation between two variables

        C:-Calculate the standard deviation of a sample

        D:-Test the hypothesis of independence between two categorical variables

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question47:-What is the primary function of the Juvenile Justice Board (JJB)?

        A:-Conduct judicial proceedings for children in conflict with law

        B:-Manage child welfare programs

        C:-Run educational programs for juveniles

        D:-Supervise child adoption cases

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question48:-Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the District Child

Protection Unit (DCPU)?

        A:-Setting up child protection committees

        B:-Implementing child labor laws

        C:-Conducting juvenile justice hearings

        D:-Ensuring implementation of child protection policies

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question49:-What is the focus of the KAVAL PLUS scheme?

        A:-Provide financial aid to underprivileged children

        B:-Reduce school dropout rates among children

        C:-Provide protective services to children at risk

        D:-Improve children's educational outcomes

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question50:-Which ministry is responsible for the implementation of POSHAN

ABHIYAN in India?

        A:-Ministry of Women and Child Development

        B:-Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

        C:-Ministry of Education

        D:-Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-Selective attention is also known as

i.    Endogenous attention

ii.   Goal-driven attention

iii.   Volitional attention

iv.   Executive attention

        A:-All of the above

        B:-All except iii

        C:-ii and iv

        D:-ii only

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question52:-Driving a car and talking to a passenger at the same time is an

example of

        A:-Focussed Attention

        B:-Executive Attention

        C:-Alternative Attention

        D:-Divided Attention

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question53:-Which of the following statement is correct?

        A:-Sensation is top down approach while perception is bottom up approach

        B:-Sensation is bottom up approach while perception is top down approach

        C:-Both sensation and perception are top down approach

        D:-Both sensation and perception are bottom up approach

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question54:-When we look at the Olympic logo, we see overlapping circles rather

than the assortment of curved, connected lines. The underlying law is

        A:-Law of Similarity

        B:-Law of Pragnanz

        C:-Law of Closure

        D:-Law of Common Region

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question55:-The distinct memory stores in the brain according to Atkinson and

Shiffrin are :

        A:-Fluid memory and Crystalized memory

        B:-Working memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory

        C:-Fluid memory and Short-term memory and Long-term memory

        D:-Sensory memory, Short-term memory and Long-term memory

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question56:-Which of the following are correct about WMS

i.    Anyone ages 16 to 90 is eligible to take this test.

ii.   The fourth edition (WMS-IV) has been published in 2019

iii.   WMS was first published in 1945

        A:-All the above are correct

        B:-i and ii are correct

        C:-i and iii are correct

        D:-ii and iii are correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question57:-The five stages that people follow during the creative process as

outlined by Graham Wallace are :

        A:-(i) Incubation (ii) Illumination (iii) Verification and (iv) Preparation

        B:-(i) Illumination (ii) Verification (iii) Incubation and (iv) Production

        C:-(i) Preparation, (ii) Illumination (iii) Incubation and (iv) Verification

        D:-(i) Preparation (ii) Incubation (iii) Illumination and (iv) Verification

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question58:-The five kinds of contents as per the SOI model are :

        A:-Cognition, Memory, Production, Evaluation and Semantic

        B:-Visual, Auditory, Systems, Semantic and Behavioural

        C:-Behavioural, Visual, Symbolic, Semantic and Auditory

        D:-Visual, Auditory, Symbolic, Semantic and Relations

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question59:-The first step in problem solving is

        A:-Diagnosing the root cause/causes

        B:-Defining the problem

        C:-Identifying the alternatives available

        D:-Analysing the problem

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-Statements :

i.    All tigers are mammals

ii.   Some mammals are carnivores.

Conclusion :

I.   Some tigers are carnivores.

II. All carnivores are tigers.

        A:-Only conclusion I is correct

        B:-Only conclusion II is correct

        C:-Both conclusion I and II are correct

        D:-Neither conclusion I nor II is correct

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question61:-Which of the following is/are intrinsic motivation?

i. Participating in sports competition by own initiation

ii. A person dancing for health benefits

iii. A child riding cycle

iv. Self-study for examination

v.   Reading for general knowledge

        A:-All the given activities

        B:-ii, iii, iv and v

        C:-ii and iii

        D:-iii only

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question62:-Which of the following is true as per the James-Lange Theory of

emotion?

        A:-Physiological responses occur first and they play a major role in the

experience of emotion

        B:-Emotion occur first and then physiological responses take place

        C:-Emotion and physical experience take place together

        D:-Thoughts are responsible for emotions

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-In classical conditioning, what does the conditioned response (CR)

refer to?

        A:-The natural reaction to an unconditioned stimulus

        B:-The learned response to a conditioned stimulus

        C:-The response to an unconditioned stimulus

        D:-A neutral response to a stimulus

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question64:-Higher-order conditioning occurs when :

        A:-A neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus by being paired with an

existing conditioned stimulus

        B:-A conditioned stimulus no longer elicits a response

        C:-A neutral stimulus becomes a neutral stimulus

        D:-A conditioned response is extinguished

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question65:-Which of the following best illustrates the principle of behavioral

contrast in operant conditioning?

        A:-A student receives a reward for every correct answer, and their

performance improves over time

        B:-A child is given a cookie for finishing their homework early, but their

homework performance decreases when the reward is stopped

        C:-A gambler continues to gamble because they have won on occasion, even

though they mostly lose

        D:-A student behaves well at home because they know their parents will give

them a reward at the end of the week

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question66:-When using positive reinforcement, which of the following is most

important for ensuring that the reinforcement is effective?

        A:-The reinforcement should be delayed to give the individual time to reflect

on their behavior

        B:-The reinforcement should be varied randomly to maintain interest

        C:-The reinforcement should immediately follow the desired behavior

        D:-The reinforcement should be given only after the behavior has been

repeated several times

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question67:-According to Allport, which of the following best describes the

functional autonomy of motives?

        A:-Motives that remain static and do not evolve throughout life

        B:-Motives that are always learned through observation and socialization

        C:-Motives that are exclusively tied to childhood experiences

        D:-Motives that, once established, are no longer influenced by their original

causes

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-Carl Rogers suggested that the primary task of therapy is

        A:-To help the client discover the root causes of their unconscious conflicts

        B:-To help the client develop a more realistic understanding of themselves by

promoting congruence

        C:-To encourage the client to adopt societal norms and behaviors to improve

social functioning

        D:-To challenge the client's self-concept in order to confront irrational beliefs

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question69:-In Erikson's Trust vs. Mistrust stage, which of the following is

considered crucial for the development of trust?

        A:-The ability to successfully navigate societal expectations for success

        B:-A child's ability to assert independence and control their environment

        C:-The development of a strong sense of identity through peer relationships

        D:-The consistent and reliable care provided by caregivers

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question70:-In Bandura's self-system, cognitive processes are important because

they

        A:-Determine an individual's ability to control their impulses and delay

gratification

        B:-Serve as the primary mechanism through which people adapt to social

environments and influence their actions

        C:-Completely determine the outcome of behaviors without any influence from

the environment

        D:-Are irrelevant, as Bandura's theory emphasizes behavioral reinforcement

over congnition

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question71:-In a workplace, Sonia notices that her colleague, Hari frequently

arrives late to meetings. Sonia attributes Hari's lateness to his personal laziness

and lack of commitment. However, Sonia later learns that Hari has been dealing

with health issues, which have caused him to be late. According to Attribution

Theory, Sonia's initial attribution of Hari's behavior is most likely an example of :

        A:-Fundamental Attribution Error

        B:-Self-Serving Bias

        C:-Actor-Observer Bias

        D:-Consensus Effect

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Justin has always considered himself an environmentally conscious

person, frequently recycling and minimizing his carbon footprint. However, when he

bought a new car, he chose a model that is known to have high fuel consumption

and low environmental efficiency. Justin experiences discomfort about his choice

because it conflicts with his prior self-image as an eco-friendly person. According to

Cognitive Dissonance Theory, how is Justin likely to reduce the dissonance he is

feeling?

        A:-He will start driving less to offset his environmental impact

        B:-He will ignore the dissonance and avoid thinking about it

        C:-He will buy a second car that is more environmentally friendly

        D:-He will justify his decision by telling himself that the new car is necessary

for his job

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-A researcher is studying the effectiveness of a new intervention

designed to improve communication skills in children with Autism Spectrum

Disorder (ASD). The intervention focuses on using visual aids, such as picture cards,

to help children express their needs. Some parents report improvements in their

children's communication, while others see no change. What is the most likely

explanation for these differing outcomes?

        A:-All children with ASD respond to visual aids in the same way, so the

intervention is ineffective for some children

        B:-The intervention may be more effective for children with lower levels of

language development or those who are more visually oriented

        C:-Parent who report no change may not be using the picture cards

consistently, leading to inconsistent results

        D:-The intervention is likely ineffective for all children with ASD because it is

based on a single strategy in the form of visual aids

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question74:-A patient with schizophrenia exhibits a complete lack of motivation,

diminished emotional expression, and an inability to complete daily tasks. Which

symptom domain is primarily involved here?

        A:-Positive symptoms

        B:-Cognitive symptoms

        C:-Negative symptoms

        D:-Affective symptoms

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question75:-Which of the following is a distinguishing feature between generalized

anxiety disorder (GAD) and panic disorder?

        A:-Panic disorder is characterized by constant worrying about future events,

while GAD involves unpredictable and sudden anxiety attacks

        B:-The primary symptom of GAD is avoidance of feared situations, whereas

panic disorder involves intrusive thoughts

        C:-Panic disorder is associated with fear of social situations, while GAD

involves fears related to separation from loved ones

        D:-GAD involves persistent, excessive worry about a variety of topics, while

panic disorder is marked by sudden, recurrent episodes of intense fear or

discomfort

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question76:-Which stage of child development is characterized by rapid physical

growth and motor skill development?

        A:-Infancy

        B:-Adolescence

        C:-Early childhood

        D:-Middle childhood

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing child development?

        A:-Genetics

        B:-Parenting styles

        C:-Peer relationships

        D:-Seasonal weather patterns

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-According to Jean Piaget's theory, which stage involves the

development of object permanence?

        A:-Pre operational stage

        B:-Concrete operational stage

        C:-Sensorimotor stage

        D:-Formal operational stage

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-What is one major principle of Erik Erikson's psychosocial development

theory?

        A:-Development is continuous and uniform

        B:-Each stage involves a conflict that must be resolved

        C:-Development is based solely on biological factors

        D:-Cultural differences do not impact development

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question80:-How does play contribute to a child's cognitive development?

        A:-It enhances physical strength

        B:-It helps build problem-solving and critical thinking skills

        C:-It prevents emotional outbursts

        D:-It solely focuses on social interactions

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Which of the following is a benefit of early childhood education?

        A:-Accelerates emotional maturity

        B:-Promotes lifelong learning habits

        C:-Ensures academic success for all children

        D:-Eliminates the need for primary education

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question82:-What type of play involves children engaging in imaginary roles or

scenarios?

        A:-Solitary play

        B:-Parallel play

        C:-Pretend play

        D:-Cooperative play

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question83:- Which theorist proposed the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) as

a key element in learning?

        A:-Sigmund Freud

        B:-Lev Vygotsky

        C:-Jean Piaget

        D:-B.F. Skinner

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question84:-What is a critical period in child development

        A:-A stage of academic success

        B:-A time frame when certain skills are most easily learned

        C:-A phase marked by frequent mood swings

        D:-A period of regression in development

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question85:-Which environmental factor has the most significant impact on child

development?

        A:-Access to technology

        B:-Availability of toys

        C:-Quality of parental interaction

        D:-Neighborhood infrastructure

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question86:-What role does outdoor play have in child development

        A:-Its is primarily for entertainment

        B:-It helps develop gross motor skills and reduces stress

        C:-It minimizes the need for structured learning

        D:-It discourages group interactions

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question87:-Why is early intervention important for children with developmental

delays?

        A:-It reduces the need for lifelong support services

        B:-It ensures higher IQ scores

        C:-It replaces traditional learning methods

        D:-It eliminates the impact of genetics

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question88:-What is the recommended intake of cereals and millets for indian

pregnant women

        A:-220g

        B:-200g

        C:-280g

        D:-300g

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-What is the additional requirement for folate for lactating women

        A:-50 mic g

        B:-80 mic g

        C:-100 mic g

        D:-120 mic g

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question90:-1000 days of life given priority in health interventions are

        A:-upto 2 years

        B:-1-3 years

        C:-2-4 years

        D:-1.5-3.5 years

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question91:-_________ supplements are a new treatment for diarrhoea to be given

always in addition to ORS

        A:-Calcium

        B:-Phosphorous

        C:-Lithium

        D:-Zinc

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question92:-Infants born to ________ deficient mothers will develop cretinism and

stunted growth

        A:-Zinc

        B:-Protein

        C:-Calcium

        D:-Iodine

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question93:-A stunted child has a height for age Z score that is atleast _________ SD

below median in the WHO growth chart

        A:-2

        B:-5

        C:-3

        D:-1

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question94:-The beneficiaries of SUMAN intervention are

        A:-Covid patients

        B:-Mothers

        C:-Adolescents

        D:-Elderly

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question95:-'Laqshya' initiative aims to improve

        A:-Adolescent health

        B:-Elderly's health

        C:-Non communicable diseases

        D:-Labour rooms

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question96:-Regarding early childhood care and education, which of the following is

not a key principle fo the National Education Policy 2020?

        A:-Rigid curriculum

        B:-Holistic development

        C:-Play-based learning

        D:-Focus on foundational literacy and numeracy

        Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question97:-Which theorist is most closely associated with the concept of

"Scaffolding"?

        A:-Maria Montessori

        B:-Jean Piaget

        C:-Lev Vygotsky

        D:-John Dewey

        Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question98:-Which of the following is not a crucial factor in creating a high-quality

early childhood education program?

        A:-Qualified and well-trained early childhood educators

        B:-Small class sizes and individualized attention for each child

        C:-A developmentally appropriate curriculum that focuses on play-based

learning and exploration

        D:-A rigid and structured environment that emphasizes academic achievement

from a very young age

        Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question99:-How can preschools in India best promote inclusive education?

        A:-Creating separate classes for children with special needs

        B:-Providing individualized education plans for all children

        C:-Prioritizing the needs of children from privileged backgrounds

        D:-Focusing solely on academic achievement

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question100:-Which of the following is not a core responsibility of a preschool

supervisor in Kerala?

        A:-Ensuring the implementation of the state's ECCE curriculum

        B:-Providing direct instruction to children in the classroom

        C:-Monitoring the quality of teaching and learning

        D:-Supporting teacher professional development

        Correct Answer:- Option-B

Read Also:

 Principles of Development-ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

Types of Development ICDS Supervisor Exam-Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions

Child Development ICDS Supervisor Exam - Kerala PSC ICDS Supervisor Exam Questions

Malaria |ICDS Supervisor Kerala Study Materials

Read Also: 

ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers

Common Health Problems in India & Different Levels of Health care in India

1. Meal Planning for the Infant

2. Spplementary foods for Infants

3. Importance of Breast Milk

4. How to Feed Infant? Meal Plan for Infants

5. Meal Planning for the Prechoolers

Topic wise Notes for ICDS Supervisor Exam

 

1.      Home Science, 

2.      Food and Nutrition, 

3.      Psychology

4.       Physiology

5.       Microbiology

6.       Sociology 

7.      Nutrition and Health 

 

MCQ Questions & Answers for ICDS Supervisor

 

1.      ICDS Supervisor NOTES

2.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (1-20)

3.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (21-30)

4.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ-1

5.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 1

6.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 2

7.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 3

8.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 4

9.      

10.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 2

11.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 3

12.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 4

13.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

14.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 2

15.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 3

16.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 4

17.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 5

18.  

19.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 7

20.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 8

21.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

22.  Elementary Care & Education MCQ

23.  Solved Previous Question Paper ICDS Supervisor

24.  Women & Child ICDS Supervisor Exam

25.  Extension Education Notes for ICDS Supervisor

26.  Complete NOTES Child Psychology

 

 

Nutrition Notes

 

5 Food Groups

Nutrition MCQ 1

Nutrition MCQ 2

 

More Topic wise Notes can be got from the Website https://www.previousquestions.in

 

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Complete NOTES Child Psychology

മന:ശാസ്ത്ര പഠനരീതികള്‍ (methods of psychological studies)

വ്യത്യസ്ത മന:ശാസ്ത്ര ശാഖകള്‍ Different Branches of Psychology

വ്യത്യസ്ത മന:ശാസ്ത്രസിദ്ധാന്തങ്ങള്‍

നിരീക്ഷണ പഠന സിദ്ധാന്തം

വിലയിരുത്തല്‍ Assessment

 

 

സ്വയം വിലയിരുത്തലും പരസ്പര വിലയിരുത്തലും (peer assessment)

 

121/2017 Pre Primary teacher Previous Question paper with solutions

 

ബുദ്ധി (INTELLIGENCE)

 

ഹവാര്‍ഡ് ഗാര്‍ഡ്നര്‍- ഒമ്പതുതരം ബുദ്ധി

പഠനം 5 വാദങ്ങൾ

ബിഹേവിയറിസം

ഗസ്റ്റാള്‍ട്ടിസം Gestaltism Learning methods

ജ്ഞാതൃവ്യവഹാരവാദം ( Cognitive behaviorism)

 
മാനവികതാവാദം (Humanism)

ജ്ഞാതൃവാദം (Cognitivism)


നാഡീമന:ശാസ്ത്രം (neuropsychology)|പഠനത്തെ സ്വാധീനിക്കുന്ന ഘടകങ്ങള്‍

 
കോള്‍ബര്‍ഗിന്റെ സന്മാര്‍ഗവികാസഘട്ടങ്ങള്‍

വ്യക്തിത്വം Personality

 
ഉള്‍പ്പെടുത്തിയുളള വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം Inclusive education

PART 2 ഉള്‍പ്പെടുത്തിയുളള വിദ്യാഭ്യാസം  Inclusive education

ദിനാചരണങ്ങള്‍ Important dates based on themes

 
 

 

READ More :

 

ICDS SUPERVISOR Malayalam Notes

Child Psychology Notes

Anganwadi Worker Notes

 Pedagogy  Malayalam Notes

LPSA Study Notes

KTET Notes

UPSA Study Notes

Complete NOTES Child Psychology