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Provides Previous questions and Previous year question papers of Kerala PSC,UPSC, SSC,RRB,CTET,KTETand other Competitive Exams.ICDS Supervisor Study Materials ,ICDS Supervisor previous Questions, ICDS Supervisor MCQs,ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers

20 September 2023

ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC

 ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC

ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers


1. Which vaccine is given to children at birth?

A. BCG B. DPT

C. Measles D. Chickenpox

2. Facilities such as medical, legal, police, counselling,

shelter are being provided at one centre by

Government, is known as:

A. GARIMA B. APARAJITA

C. NARI D. MAHILA

3. ICDS programme was launched in year:

A. 1973 B. 1974

C. 1975 D. 1976

4. Which one of the following services is not provided

to the beneficiaries of ICDS?

A. Employment B. Health Check-up

C. Immunization D. Referral Services

5. The first indicator of PEM is:

A. Skin changes B. Hair changes

C. Over weight for age D. Under weight for age

6. ‘Kwashiorkar’ term was coined by:

A. Louis Pasteure B. Jelliffe

C. Davidson D. Cicely Williams

7. Severe wasting of muscles is observed in children

with:

A. Anaemia B. Osteoporosis

C. Beriberi D. Marasmus

8. Whooping cough is primarily a disease of:

A. Infants B. Old people

C. Teenagers D. Adults

9. Which of these is an infectious disease?

A. Hypertension B. Type 2 diabetes

C. Cancer D. Tuberculosis

10. ‘Genu Vulgum’ is a result of:

A. Fluoride toxicity

B. Excess of Manganese

C. Deficiency of Potassium

D. Iodine toxicity

11. Extra energy required by lactating mother during first

6 months is:

A. 500 kcal / day B. 600 kcal / day

C. 700 kcal / day D. 800 kcal / day

12. Nausea among pregnant women can be reduced by

eating:

A. Food rich in fat

B. Spicy food

1

C. Small and frequent meals

D. Large meals

13. Which of these is a combined vaccine?

A. HIB B. DPT

C. HEP B D. Varicella

14. Sabla scheme implemented at the ICDS level is for:

A. School age children B. Adolescent girls

C. Elderly women D. Working women

15. The Red Cell life span is:

A. increased in PEM

B. does not change in PEM

C. shortened in PEM

D. extended in sodium deficiency

16. Malaria is transmitted from human to human by the

bite of infected mosquito:

A. Aedes aegypti B. Aedes albopictus

C. Female anopheles D. Culex

17. The hormone that stimulates the alveoli in the breasts,

resulting in milk production is:

A. Prolactin B. Oxytocin

C. Leutinising hormone D. Estrogen

18. Requirement of which nutrient becomes double during

pregnancy?

A. Iron B. Protein

C. Energy D. Calcium

19. Oxalates present in certain vegetables prevent the

absorption of which of the following?

A. Iron B. Vitamin D

C. Iodine D. Sodium

20. The three energy yielding nutrients are:

A. Vitamins, protein and minerals

B. Vitamins, carbohydrates and fat

C. Fat, carbohydrates and protein

D. Minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates

21. Iron is an essential element for the formation of which

of the following?

A. Haemoglobin B. Myoglobin

C. Adrenaline D. Pepsin

22. The risk of hypertension is increased by high intake of:

A. Phosphorus B. Potassium

C. Sodium D. Sulphur

23. Base of the food pyramid is formed of:

A. Cereals and Pulses B. Vegetables and Fruits

C. Sugar D. Meat and its products

24. Whole grains are important source of:

A. B – Vitamins B. Vitamin C

C. Lipids D. b-Carotene

25. The RDA for iron during pregnancy is:

A. 25 mg/day B. 30 mg/day

C. 35 mg/day D. 40 mg/day

26. Average weight gain during pregnancy should be:

A. 15-17 kg B. 5-7 kg

C. 10-12 kg D. 8-9 kg

27. Constipation in pregnant women can be treated by

taking:

A. Only fluids

B. Plenty of vegetables, fruits and fluids

C. Fatty foods

D. Starchy foods

28. The increasing size of uterus in pregnancy causes:

A. Diarrhoea B. Fever

C. Heartburn and acidity D. Severe headache

29. Vaccine recommended to prevent chickenpox is:

A. Rotavirus B. BCG

C. MMR D. Varicella

30. MMR vaccine is recommended to prevent:

A. Measles B. Malaria

C. Pneumonia D. Polio

31. Sequence in which growth starts at the centre of the

body and moves towards the extremities:

A. Cephalocaudal pattern

B. Proximodistal pattern

C. Distal pattern

D. Dynamic pattern

32. Play that involves social interaction with peers:

A. Constructive play B. Intellectual play

C. Social play D. Practice play

33. Which of the following is NOT the developmental

task of early childhood stage?

A. Learning to control the elimination of bodily

waste

B. Learning sex differences and sexual modesty

C. Learning to take solid food

D. Learning language to describe social and physical

reality

34. Which of the following is NOT the principle of growth

and development?

A. Development proceeds from specific to general

B. Development is cumulative in nature

C. Development is a continuous process

D. Development is multidimensional in nature

35. The first stage of Piaget’s cognitive development during

which the infants and toddlers build schemes through

their senses and motor activities is known as:

A. Formal operational stage

B. Concrete operational stage

C. Preoperational stage

D. Sensory-Motor stage

36. Which among the following is NOT the stage of

prenatal development?

A. Foetal stage B. Embryonic period

C. Organogenesis period D. Germinal period

37. The pattern of change that begins at conception and

continues through the life span:

A. Development B. Growth

C. Maturation D. Multiplication

38. When the baby turns head to one side, assumes

“fencer” position, extends arms and legs on preferred

side is:

A. Moro reflex B. Tonic reflex

C. Babkin reflex D. Rooting reflex

39. A small tube with a light source at one end is inserted

into the uterus to inspect the foetus for defects of the

limbs and face is a technique called:

A. Aminocentesis B. Ultrasound

C. Fetoscopy D. Maternal blood analysis

40. .................. is the inner layer of cell that develops during

the germinal period.

A. Trophoblast B. Blastocyst

C. Endocyst D. Embryoblast

41. Ability to use mental representation to which child

has attached meaning is called:

A. Symbolic function B. Spatial reasoning

C. Conservation D. Operations

42. Altruistic behaviour is:

A. Action that harm others

B. Action that benefit others

C. Expecting reward from others

D. Selfish behaviour

43. When 4 years old Saloni tells her mother that her doll

cannot come and play because she is sick and has to

stay in bed, she is exhibiting the behaviour of:

A. Egocentricism B. Animism

C. Realism D. Artificialism

44. The process by which child absorbs meaning of new

word after hearing it:

A. Grammar and syntax B. Fast maping

C. Social speech D. Private speech

45. A child hides history under a blanket and he sincerely

believes that none can see history as he is not able to

see it. This type of thinking among children is termed

as:

A. Concrete thinking B. Abstract thinking

C. Centralised thinking D. Egocentric thinking

46. The processes by which an infant learns to reproduce

desired occurrences originally discovered by chance

is:

A. Schemes B. Tertiary reaction

C. Circular reaction D. Mental representation

47. An area of the forebrain that makes up about 80% of

the brain volume and plays critical role in language,

thinking etc.



A. Cerebral cortex B. Medulla

C. Cerebral lobe D. Cerebellum

48. The acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine

role is called:

A. Gender Identity B. Gender Role

C. Gender Typing D. Androgyny

49. ............ is the judgement we make about our own worth

and the feeling associated with those judgements.

A. Self-concept B. Self-esteem

C. Self-perception D. Self-confidence

50. Which of the following is NOT the part of language

development during Early Childhood years?

A. Speech and vocabulary development

B. Development of oral expression

C. Development of listening skills

D. Development of language imitation

51. The cognitive ability that indicates the beginning of

the pre-operational period is:

A. Ability of symbolic thinking

B. Ability for goal directed behaviour

C. Ability to make out other person’s perspective

D. Ability of decentralised thinking

52. A term used for any environmental agent that causes

damage during the prenatal period.

A. Teratogens

B. Maternal diet

C. Neurons

D. Emotional stress of mother

53. Fantasy play, dramatic play or imaginative play

commonly refers to:

A. Pretend play B. Constructive play

C. Functional play D. Parallel play

54. Scale used for measuring new born’s condition on

basis of appearance, pulse, activity and respiration:

A. Apgar scale

B. Brazelton scale

C. Neonatal screening tool

D. IQ scale

55. The stage of cognitive development in which children

become more sophisticated in their use of symbolic

thought but are not yet able to use logic is:

A. Sensori-Motor stage

B. Preoperational stage

C. Formal operational stage

D. Concrete operational stage

56. A parent who uses a rigid, punitive and restrictive

style to control the behaviour of their children is a

(an):

A. Authoritarian B. Authoritative

C. Permissive D. Rejecting

57. Self-conscious emotions that emerge in the second

year and depend, in part, on cognitive development

is called:

A. Primary emotion B. Emotion

C. Secondary emotion D. Tertiary emotion

58. The ectoderm layer of embryo forms the:

A. Digestive system B. Circulatory system

C. Skeleton system D. Nervous system

59. APGAR scale is used to:

A. Assess the development of the child in womb.

B. Assess the functioning of reflexes in newborn.

C. Assess the level of attachment of the child to

mother.

D. Assess the health of newborn after birth.

60. Psychological activities like symbolic thought,

sensori-motor co-ordination develop during:

A. Infancy B. Early childhood

C. Late childhood D. Adolescence

61. A merchant purchases an item for ` 500. He marks its

price as ` 700. He allows 10% discount on cash

payment. What is total profit in terms of amount and

percentage?

A. ` 130, 26% B. ` 130, 28%

C. ` 150, 30% D. ` 120, 14%

62. With a 10% discount on the face value of a watch, a

shopkeeper has 20% profit. If he gives 13% discount

on the face value, then his profit percent is:

A. 15 B. 16

C. 17 D. 18

63. Mr. Keshav invested ` 21,250 for 10 years. At what

rate of simple interest will he obtain the total amount

of ` 26,350 at the end of 10 years?

A. 2% per annum B. 2.4% per annum

C. 3% per annum D. 3.4% per annum

64. What will be the compound interest on ` 16,000 at

20% per annum for 9 months if the interest is

compounded quarterly?

A. ` 2,225 B. ` 2,522

C. ` 2,252 D. ` 2,525

65. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for

3 years is ` 105 and with the same rate the compound

interest for 2 years is ` 70.70. The rate per cent per

annum is:

A. 2% B. 2.5%

C. 4% D. 5%

66. Consider the statement and the following assumptions

and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in

the statement.

Statement: The teachers of all degree colleges went

on an indefinite strike in protest against the govt’s

decision for postponding pay revision to next year.

Assumptions:

 (I) The government may suspend all the striking

teachers.

(II) The government may revise the pay of the college

teachers in the current year.

A. Assumption (I) is implicit.

B. Assumption (II) is implicit.

C. Either assumption (I) or (II) is implicit.

D. Both assumptions (I) and (II) are implicit.



67. A statement is followed by two arguments numbered

(I) and (II). You have to decide which of the arguments

is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Statement: Should subsidy on LPG be banned?

Argument:

(I) Yes, this would help the government to reduce

the financial deficit.

(II) No, poor families will have to face the problems.

A. Only (I) is a strong argument.

B. Only (II) is a strong argument.

C. Neither (I) nor (II) is a strong argument.

D. Both the arguments (I) and (II) are strong.

68. What number must be added to the numbers 4, 8, 16,

26 so that they become proportional?

A. 2 B. 4

C. 6 D. 8

69. Two whole numbers whose sum is 72 cannot be in

the ratio:

A. 5 : 7 B. 3 : 5

C. 3 : 7 D. 4 : 5

70. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry in a

college are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. There is a proposal to

increase these seats by 40%, 20% and 10%

respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?

A. 5 : 7 : 8 B. 7 : 9 : 11

C. 7 : 9 : 10 D. 8 : 9 : 11

71. In an election between two candidates A and B, A

got 61% of total votes cast and won the election by

3806 votes. If no vote is declared invalid, then the

total number of votes cast is:

A. 6747 B. 9759

C. 10553 D. 17300

72. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what

percentage must a customer reduce the consumption

so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?

A. 20% B. 25%

C. 30% D. 33.33%

73. A candidate who gets 20% marks, fails by 10 marks

but another candidate who gets 42% marks, gets 12%

more than the passing marks. Maximum marks are:

A. 50 B. 80

C. 100 D. 120

74. By selling a chair for ` 56, a man gets a percentage

profit equal to its C.P. The C.P. of the chair is:

A. ` 50 B. ` 48

C. ` 45 D. ` 40

75. There is 10% loss if a toy is sold for ` 1,440. At what

price it is to be sold to get 15% profit?

A. ` 1,820 B. ` 1,840

C. ` 1,860 D. ` 1,880

76. A trader mixes three varieties of rice costing ` 50,

` 20 and ` 30 per kg in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3 in terms of

weight and sells the mixture at ` 33 per kg. What

percentage of profit does he make?

A. 3% B. 5%

C. 10% D. 15%

77. The marked price of an article is ` 250. The

shopkeeper gives a discount of 20% and still gets a

profit of 25%, then the cost price of the article is:

A. ` 148 B. ` 150

C. ` 160 D. ` 200

78. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50

years. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was

5

3

. The

ages of A and B after 5 years will be:

A. 35 years, 25 years B. 30 years, 20 years

C. 38 years, 12 years D. 40 years, 20 years

79. Binny is half as old as Sunny. Pinky is twice old as

Sunny. How many times is Pinky as old as Binny?

A. 1 B. 2

C. 4 D. 8

80. Five years ago, P was thrice as old as Q and ten years

later P shall be twice as old as Q. The present age of

P is:

A. 20 years B. 30 years

C. 40 years D. 50 years

81. Find the odd one:

A. Moon B. Earth

C. Mars D. Venus

82. Which of the following alternatives is odd?

A. 16 - 64 B. 17 - 68

C. 20 - 100 D. 21 - 84

83. If PUT = 19, WAKE = 10, then MUSIC = ?

A. 12 B. 13

C. 14 D. 15

84. If 74683 means GREAT, then 7684 means:

A. HEAR B. GEAR

C. REAG D. GAER

85. Amit is the son of Rahul. Rahul’s sister Priyanka has

a son Yuvraj and a daughter Indu. Raja is the maternal

uncle of Yuvraj. How is Amit related to Yuvraj?

A. Father B. Uncle

C. Cousin D. Nephew

86. Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Priyanka said,

“Her son’s father is the son-in-law of my mother”.

How is Priyanka related to that lady?

A. Mother B. Sister

C. Aunt D. Daughter

87. A statement is followed by two conclusions numbered

(I) and (II). You have to decide which of the

conclusions follow from the given statement.

Statement: Unemployment is one of the major reasons

for country’s poverty.

Conclusion:

 (I) Providing the employment opportunities will

reduce the problem of country’s poverty.

(II) All the people in the country are unemployed



A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follows.

88. A man starts from a point and moves 3 km north, then

turns to west and goes 2 km. He turns north and walks

1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is

he from the starting point?

A. 8 km B. 3 km

C. 5 km D. 11 km

89. Monu after travelling 6 km towards east from his house

realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He

turned and travelled 12 km towards west, turned right

and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight

distance of the office from his house is:

A. 20 km B. 14 km

C. 10 km D. 8 km

90. Sonu goes 10 km towards north and then he turns 45°

to the right and goes 6 km. Then he goes 8 km after

turning to the right. Now what is the direction of his

face?

A. South - East B. South - West

C. North - East D. North - West

91. Choose the correct alternative which can be

substituted for the given word/sentence.

That which cannot be corrected.

A. Unintelligible B. Illegible

C. Incorrigible D. Indelible

92. Change from Assertive to Negative.

I was doubtful whether it was you.

A. I am doubtful whether it was you.

B. I am doubting if it was you.

C. I am not sure that it was you.

D. I was not sure that it was you.

93. Transform the following sentence from affirmative to

negative from the options: (without change of

meaning)

You must yield to your fate.

A. You cannot but yield to your fate.

B. You should not but yield to fate.

C. You have no other option so better challenge your

fate.

D. You need to yield to your fate.

94. Select the correct transformation from active to passive

voice.

They cancelled all flights because of fog.

A. All flights will be cancelled because of fog.

B. All flights were cancelled because of fog.

C. All flights are being cancelled because of fog.

D. Fog was the reason flights were cancelled.

95. Choose the correct direct speech of the following

sentence from the options given below:

They asked me whether I was ill.

A. They said to me, “Were you ill?”

B. They told me, that “Are you ill?”

C. They tell me, “Are you ill?”

D. They said to me, “Are you ill?”

96. Choose the correct indirect speech of the following

sentence from the options given below:

He said, “Hurrah, I have won the quiz.”

A. He said joyfully he has won the quiz.

B. He exclaimed with joy that he had won the quiz.

C. He exclaimed joyfully that he won the quiz.

D. He exclaimed with joy that I had won the quiz.

97. Choose the correct assertive form of the following

sentence from the options below:

What a fine doctor he is!

A. He is a doctor who is fine.

B. He is a very fine doctor.

C. Isn’t he a fine doctor!

D. He isn’t a fine doctor.

98. Choose the correct antonym of the following from

the options given below:

“Alleviate”

A. ameliorate B. aggravate

C. upgrade D. assuage

99. Choose the correct sentence in which the subject and

the verb agree:

A. The state of his affairs were such as to cause

anxiety to his creditors.

B. The mayor, with his councillors, is to be present.

C. Bread and butter were his only food.

D. The house, with its contents, were insured.

100. Fill in the blank with the correct degree of adjective

from the given options:

She is _______ than clever.

A. braver B. more brave

C. brave D. more braver

101. Choose the correct synonym of the following word

from the options below:

“Fickle”

A. inconstant B. consistent

C. unchanging D. firm

102. Choose the correct sequence of tenses.

He ________ because his feet ________ dirty.

A. bathed, was B. was bathing, were

C. was bathing, are D. was bathing, will be

103. Fill in the blank with the correct form of tense.

The commonwealth games _____ place every four years.

A. has taken B. take

C. takes D. is taking

104. Choose the correct form of Passive Transformation of

the sentence given.

They were carrying the injured player off the field.

A. The injured player had been carried off the field.

B. Off the field the injured player was carried.

C. The injured player was being carried off the field.

D. The injured player was carried off the field.


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 - A B C A D D D A D A


11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 - B C B B C C A A A C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 - A C B A C C B C D A



31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40= A C B A C C A B C B


41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 - A B B B A B A C B C


51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 - A A A A B A C D D B




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ICDS Supervisor Questions and Answers

Common Health Problems in India & Different Levels of Health care in India


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4. How to Feed Infant? Meal Plan for Infants

5. Meal Planning for the Prechoolers


Topic wise Notes for ICDS Supervisor Exam

 

1.      Home Science

2.      Food and Nutrition

3.      Psychology

4.       Physiology

5.       Microbiology

6.       Sociology 

7.      Nutrition and Health 

 

MCQ Questions & Answers for ICDS Supervisor

 

1.      ICDS Supervisor NOTES

2.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (1-20)

3.      Previous Questions MCQ|ICDS Supervisor Exam|ICDS Supervisor Kerala PSC (21-30)

4.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ-1

5.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 1

6.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 2

7.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 3

8.      ICDS Supervisor MCQ set 4

9.      Nutrition & Health MCQ 1

10.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 2

11.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 3

12.  Nutrition & Health MCQ 4

13.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

14.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 2

15.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 3

16.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 4

17.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 5

18.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 6

19.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 7

20.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 8

21.  ICDS Supervisor Previous Questions Set 1

22.  Elementary Care & Education MCQ

23.  Solved Previous Question Paper ICDS Supervisor

24.  Women & Child ICDS Supervisor Exam

25.  Extension Education Notes for ICDS Supervisor

26.  Complete NOTES Child Psychology

 

 

Nutrition Notes

 

5 Food Groups

Nutrition MCQ 1

Nutrition MCQ 2

 

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